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QUESTION 21
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Which type of virtual server can the administrator use to meet this requirement?

A.    Load Balancing
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Which tool could the administrator use to generate a report of recent changes to the environment?

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Which tool could the administrator use to generate a report of recent changes to the environment?

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QUESTION 1
A process owner has been identified with an “I” in a RACI matrix. Which one of the following would be expected of them?

A.    Be accountable for the outcome of an activity
B.    Perform an activity
C.    Be kept up-to-date on the progress of an activity
D.    Manage an activity

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following are objectives of service level management?

1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of FT services to be provided
2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided
3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction
4: Identifying possible future markets that the service provider could operate in

A.    1, 2 and 3 only
B.    1 and 2 only
C.    1, 2 and 4 only
D.    All of the above

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which one of the following do technology metrics measure?

A.    Components
B.    Processes
C.    The end-to-end service
D.    Customer satisfaction

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which process includes business, service and component sub-processes?

A.    Capacity management
B.    Incident management
C.    Service level management
D.    Financial management

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?

A.    Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages
B.    Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services
C.    Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the
service designs that are produced
D.    Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service known as?

A.    Outcome
B.    Incident
C.    Change
D.    Problem

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?

A.    Change management
B.    Service portfolio management
C.    Supplier management
D.    Continual service improvement

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation?

1. Local service desk
2. Virtual service desk
3. IT help desk
4. Follow the sun

A.    1, 2 and 4 only
B.    2, 3 and 4 only
C.    1, 3 and 4 only
D.    1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What are the categories of event described in the UIL service operation book?

A.    Informational, scheduled, normal
B.    Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C.    Informational, warning, exception
D.    Warning, reactive, proactive

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management?

A.    Employers
B.    Stakeholders
C.    Regulators
D.    Accreditors

Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
You are a system administrator responsible for maintaining Microsoft Dynamics 365 at your company.
Management wants a new application built that allows them to manage requests for vendors.
You need to use the app designer to build the new application on Microsoft Dynamics 365.
What are three items that can be configured in the app designer? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.    a site map for the new app
B.    a business rule for the new app
C.    a role to be used by the new app
D.    a dashboard for the new app
E.    a workflow for the new app

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 2
You are a system administrator for a Microsoft Dynamics 365 and Microsoft SharePoint online environment.
You need to prevent a user from accessing Microsoft SharePoint while in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
What should you do?

A.    Change the security settings for SharePoint Site on the users security role.
B.    Change the security settings for Document Generation on the user’s security role.
C.    Change the security settings for Enable or Disable User on the user’s security role.
D.    Change the security settings for Document Template on the user’s security role.

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
In which scenario is the Import Data Wizard method recommended for Microsoft Dynamics 365?

A.    a large company with data on-premises that currently uses Microsoft Dynamics AX and has it staged in Microsoft Azure
B.    a small company that currently uses Microsoft Dynamics 365, Business edition and wants to migrate to Enterprise edition
C.    a large company with Customer Relationship Management (CRM) application data that is stored on the same data center as Microsoft Dynamics 365
D.    a small company with data on-premises that has never used a Customer Relationship Management (CRM) application

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://www.microsoft.com/en-US/dynamics/crm-customer-center/import-accounts-leads-or-other-data.aspx

QUESTION 4
You are the technology director for a large company that plans to implement Microsoft Dynamics 365.
You are researching the type of licensing that is required for Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Which Microsoft Dynamics 365 App is only available with Microsoft Dynamics 365 Plan 2?

A.    Customer Service
B.    Operations
C.    Sales
D.    Field Service

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/pricing

QUESTION 5
You need to deploy a new instance, which will be used to conduct training for users for an indefinite period.
You need to be able to deploy full copies of the production environment into this new.
What should you do?

A.    Create a production instance in a new tenant
B.    Create a trial in a new tenant
C.    Create a production instance in the same tenant.
D.    Create a sandbox instance in the same tenant.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn722373.aspx

QUESTION 6
You are a system administrator for an organization with a Microsoft Dynamics 365 deployment (hosted in a European data center) and Active Directory Federated Services on-premises. Your organization acquires a new company in the US that is using Microsoft Dynamics 365 Online in its own tenant.
The US company can continue to use their Microsoft Dynamics 365 Online instance as is.
All users need to be on the European Active Directory, but they need to use an instance close to them.
What should you do?

A.    Migrate the US instance to the European tenant, and set the instance the US region.
B.    Keep the US tenant and federate Active Directory with both the US and European teanants.
C.    Keep the US tenant, and federate Active Directory with only the European tenant.
D.    Migrate the US instance to the European tenant, and set the instance to the European region.

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You are a system administrator.
Microsoft schedules an update for your instance of Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Which two scenarios will occur? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.    If you have not approved the update before the scheduled date, the instance will become inactive until approved or rescheduled.
B.    If you have approved the update, the instance will update on the scheduled date.
C.    The instance will update on the scheduled date, regardless of approval.
D.    If you have not approved the update, the instance will not update on the scheduled date.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn308237.aspx

QUESTION 8
You are an administrator for an organization that uses Microsoft Dynamics 365 and Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook.
Your users have varying requirements for which data they need to take offline.
You need to ensure that your users have access to the correct data offline.
What should you do?

A.    Instruct users on how to configure the offline filter.
B.    Instruct users on how to configure the synchronization filters.
C.    Create one set of offline filters and distribute those.
D.    Instruct users on how to configure the synchronized fields.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics/crm-customer-center/choose-records-to-work-with-offline-in-dynamics-365-for-outlook.aspx

QUESTION 9
You are in the initial planning phase of a Microsoft Dynamics 365 implementation. The customer wants to use the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook.
The customer is about to make a decision on whether Microsoft Exchange and Microsoft Dynamics 365 should be on-premises, online, or a hybrid.
You need to advise the customer on how their decision affects their ability to use the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook,
What should you tell them?

A.    The Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook is online only, so both Microsoft Exchange and Microsoft Dynamics 365 must be online.
B.    The Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook requires Microsoft Exchange to be online, but Microsoft Dynamics 365 can be on-premises.
C.    The Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook requires Microsoft Dynamics 365 to be online, but Microsoft Exchange can be on-premises.
D.    The Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook supports both online-to-online, on-premises to on-premises, and hybrid environments.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn946901.aspx

QUESTION 10
You are a deployment manager for Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Your company decides to implement Microsoft OneNote, and you need to integrate it to Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Which two steps should you take to perform this integration? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Turn on Microsoft OneNote integration.
B.    Turn on Microsoft OneDrive for Business integration.
C.    Turn on Microsoft Office 365 Groups integration.
D.    Turn on server-based Microsoft SharePoint integration.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics/crm-customer-center/set-up-onenote-integration-in-dynamics-365.aspx

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QUESTION 1
What information is included in the DHCP snooping database? (Choose two.)

A.    client MAC address
B.    DHCP server address
C.    DHCP options
D.    VLAN

Answer: AD
Explanation:
When DHCP snooping is enabled, the lease information from the server is used to create the DHCP snooping table, also known as the binding table.
The table shows current IP-MAC bindings, as well as lease time, type of binding, names of associated VLANs, and associated interface.
http://www.juniper.net/techpubs/en_US/junos13.2/topics/concept/port-security-dhcp-snooping-els.html

QUESTION 2
Which three statements are correct about the voice VLAN feature? (Choose three.)

A.    It allows the access port to accept tagged voice and untagged data packets.
B.    It allows you to apply independent CoS actions to data and voice packets.
C.    It can be used with LLDP-MED to dynamically assign the VLAN ID value to IP phones.
D.    It allows trunk ports to accept tagged voice and untagged data packets.
E.    It must use the same VLAN ID as data traffic on a defined interface.

Answer: ABC
Explanation:
A (not D): The Voice VLAN feature in EX-series switches enables access ports to accept both data (untagged) and voice (tagged) traffic and separate that traffic into different VLANs.
B: To assign differentiated priority to Voice traffic, it is recommended that class of service (CoS) is configured prior to enabling the voice VLAN feature. Typically, voice traffic is treated with a higher priority than common user traffic. Without differentiated treatment through CoS, all traffic, regardless of the type, is subject to the same delay during times of congestion.
C: In conjunction with Voice VLAN, you can utilize Link Layer Discovery Protocol Media Endpoint Discovery (LLDP-MED) to provide the voice VLAN ID and 802.1p values to the attached IP phones. This dynamic method associates each IP phone with the appropriate voice VLAN and assigns the necessary802.1p values, which are used by CoS, to differentiate service for voice traffic within a network.
https://kb.juniper.net/InfoCenter/index?page=content&id=KB11062&actp=search

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are correct about aggregate routes in the Junos OS? (Choose two.)

A.    An active route can contribute only to a single aggregate route.
B.    Only one aggregate route can be configured for each destination prefix.
C.    An aggregate route has a default next hop of an IP address.
D.    An aggregate route always shows as active in the routing table.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
A route can contribute only to a single aggregate route.
You can configure only one aggregate route for each destination prefix.

QUESTION 4
Which device is used to separate collision domains?

A.    switch
B.    router
C.    hub
D.    firewall

Answer: A
Explanation:
Modern wired networks use a network switch to reduce or eliminate collisions.
By connecting each device directly to a port on the switch, either each port on a switch becomes its own collision domain (in the case of half duplex links) or the possibility of collisions is eliminated entirely in the case of full duplex links.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Collision_domain

QUESTION 5
What are two types of IS-IS PDUs? (Choose two.)

A.    open PDU
B.    VRF PDU
C.    hello PDU
D.    link-state PDU

Answer: CD
Explanation:
IS-IS hello (IIH) PDUs broadcast to discover the identity of neighboring IS-IS systems and to determine whether the neighbors are Level 1 or Level 2 intermediate systems. Link-state PDUs contain information about the state of adjacencies to neighboring IS-IS systems.
http://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos15.1/topics/concept/is-is-routing-overview.html

QUESTION 6
What are three extended BGP communities? (Choose three.)

A.    Origin: 172.16.100.100:100
B.    domain-id: 192.168.1.1:555
C.    extend:454:350
D.    172.16.90.100:888
E.    target:65000:65000

Answer: ABE
Explanation:
The BGP extended communities attribute format has three fields:
type: administrator: assigned-number. type is the type of extended community and can be either the 16-bit numerical identifier of a specific BGP extended community or one of these types: origin– Identifies where the route originated.
domain-id– Identifies the OSPF domain from which the route originated.
target– Identifies the destination to which the route is going.
bandwidth– Sets up the bandwidth extended community. Specifying link bandwidth allows you to distribute traffic unequally among different BGP paths.
rt-import– Identifies the route to install in the routing table.
src -as– Identifies the AS from which the route originated.
You must specify an AS number, not an IP address.
https://www.juniper.net/techpubs/en_US/junos12.3/topics/usage-guidelines/policy-defining-bgp-communities-and-extended-communities-for-use-in-routing-policy-match-conditions.html

QUESTION 7
Which two statements are true about DIS elections in IS-IS? (Choose two.)

A.    If a priority tie occurs, the router with the lower subnetwork point of attachment (SNPA) value becomes the DIS.
B.    If a priority tie occurs, the router with the higher subnetwork point of attachment (SNPA) value becomes the DIS.
C.    The router with the lower priority value becomes the DIS.
D.    The router with the higher priority value becomes the DIS.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
In IS-IS, deterministic DIS election makes the possibility of predicting the router that will be elected as DIS from the same set of routers.
The router advertising the numerically highest priority wins, with numerically highest MAC address, also called a Subnetwork Point of Attachment (SNPA), breaking the tie.
https://kb.juniper.net/kb/documents/public/junos/StudyGuides/Ch4_from_JNCIP_studyguide.pdf

QUESTION 8
Host-1 was recently added in the network and is attached to ge-0/0/10 on Switch-A.
Host-1 is powered on and has its interface configured with default Layer 2 settings and an IP address on the 172.17.12.0/24 IP subnet.
Host-1’s MAC address is not shown in Switch-A’s bridging table.
What are three explanations for this state? (Choose three.)

A.    The ge-0/0/10 interface is configured as an access port.
B.    The ge-0/0/10 interface is not operationally or administratively up.
C.    The ge-0/0/10 interface does not have an associated IRB.
D.    The ge-0/0/10 interface has not received any traffic from Host-1.
E.    The ge-0/0/10 interface is configured as a trunk port.

Answer: BCD
Explanation:
B: MAC learning messages received with errors include:
Interface down–The MAC address is learned on an interface that is down.
C: To configure the MAC address of an IRB interface Etc.
http://www.juniper.net/techpubs/en_US/junos15.1/topics/reference/command-summary/show-ethernet-switching-statistics-mac-learning-ex-series.html
https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos16.1/topics/example/example-configuring-mac-address-of-an-irb-interface.html

QUESTION 9
Router-1 and Router-2 need to connect through the Internet using a tunneling technology.
Hosts that are connected to Router-1 and Router-2 will be sending traffic up to 1500 bytes.
The maximum segment size is supported across the path is 1520 bytes.
Which tunneling technology will allow this communication to take place?

A.    GRE tunnel
B.    IPsec VPN transport mode
C.    IPsec VPN tunnel mode
D.    IP-IP tunnel

Answer: D
Explanation:
Difference Between GRE and IP-IP Tunnel. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) and IP-in-IP (IPIP) are two rather similar tunneling mechanisms which are often confused. In terms of less overhead, the GRE header is 24 bytes and an IP header is 20 bytes.

QUESTION 10
What are two interarea OSPF LSA types? (Choose two.)

A.    Type-4 ASBR summary LSAs
B.    Type 3 summary LSAs
C.    Type 1 router LSAs
D.    Type 2 network LSAs

Answer: AB

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QUESTION 1
A process owner has been identified with an “I” in a RACI matrix. Which one of the following would be expected of them?

A.    Be accountable for the outcome of an activity
B.    Perform an activity
C.    Be kept up-to-date on the progress of an activity
D.    Manage an activity

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following are objectives of service level management?

1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of FT services to be provided
2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided
3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction
4: Identifying possible future markets that the service provider could operate in

A.    1, 2 and 3 only
B.    1 and 2 only
C.    1, 2 and 4 only
D.    All of the above

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which one of the following do technology metrics measure?

A.    Components
B.    Processes
C.    The end-to-end service
D.    Customer satisfaction

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which process includes business, service and component sub-processes?

A.    Capacity management
B.    Incident management
C.    Service level management
D.    Financial management

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?

A.    Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages
B.    Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services
C.    Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the
service designs that are produced
D.    Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service known as?

A.    Outcome
B.    Incident
C.    Change
D.    Problem

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?

A.    Change management
B.    Service portfolio management
C.    Supplier management
D.    Continual service improvement

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation?

1. Local service desk
2. Virtual service desk
3. IT help desk
4. Follow the sun

A.    1, 2 and 4 only
B.    2, 3 and 4 only
C.    1, 3 and 4 only
D.    1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What are the categories of event described in the UIL service operation book?

A.    Informational, scheduled, normal
B.    Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C.    Informational, warning, exception
D.    Warning, reactive, proactive

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management?

A.    Employers
B.    Stakeholders
C.    Regulators
D.    Accreditors

Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
A router’s static route is set by the:

A.    Adjacent network
B.    Next upstream router
C.    Network administrator
D.    Routing protocol

Answer: C
Explanation:
Static routing is a form of routing that occurs when a router uses a manually-configured routing entry, rather than information from a dynamic routing protocol to forward traffic.

QUESTION 2
Which setting is used to determine the Domain Name System (DNS) settings on a client computer?

A.    TELNET
B.    NSLOOKUP
C.    PATHPING
D.    NETSTAT

Answer: B
Explanation:
nslookup is a network administration command-line tool available for many computer operating systems for querying the Domain Name System (DNS) to obtain domain name or IP address mapping or for any other specific DNS record.

QUESTION 3
The host name of the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) mail.exchange.corp.nwtraders.com is:

A.    corp
B.    com
C.    nwtraders
D.    exchange
E.    mail

Answer: E
Explanation:
Hostnames are composed of series of labels concatenated with dots, as are all domain names. For example, let’s break mail.google.com into its component parts: mail is the host or local hostname; and google.com is the domain or parent domain name.

QUESTION 4
To which IP configuration does the CIDR notation 192.168.1.1/25 refer?

A.    192.168.1.1 255.255.255.64
B.    192.168.1.1 255.255.255.1
C.    192.168.1.1 255.255.255.32
D.    192.168.1.1 255.255.255.256
E.    192.168.1.1 255.255.255.128

Answer: E

QUESTION 5
Which command is used to verify that a server is connected to the network?

A.    IPCONFIG
B.    ROUTE
C.    PING
D.    CHECK

Answer: C
Explanation:
Ping is a computer network administration software utility used to test the reachability of a host on an Internet Protocol (IP) network and to measure the round-trip time for messages sent from the originating host to a destination computer.

QUESTION 6
Which of these represents the Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) loopback address?

A.    127.0.0.1
B.    192.168.0.1
C.    FEC0:A8C0::AA01
D.    ::1

Answer: D
Explanation:
The localhost (loopback) address, 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1, and the IPv6 unspecified address, 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:0, are reduced to ::1 and ::, respectively.

QUESTION 7
Which of these addresses is a multicast address?

A.    127.0.0.1
B.    169.254.0.1
C.    192.168.0.1
D.    224.0.0.1

Answer: D
Explanation:
The full range of multicast addresses is from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255.

QUESTION 8
Which of the following uses pointer records and A records?

A.    IDS
B.    DNS Server
C.    NAT Server
D.    IPS

Answer: B
Explanation:
DNS records include:
* A
Address record
* PTR
Pointer record

QUESTION 9
The ipconfig command will:

A.    Configure routers
B.    Display a client’s address
C.    Display a client’s broadcast mode
D.    Configure DHCP clients

Answer: B
Explanation:
Displays all current TCP/IP network configuration values and refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. Used without parameters, ipconfig displays the IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway for all adapters.

QUESTION 10
One reason to incorporate VLANs in a network is to:

A.    Increase the number of available IP addresses.
B.    Increase the number of available Media Access Control (MAC) addresses.
C.    Reduce the number of broadcast domains.
D.    Reduce the number of nodes in a broadcast domain.

Answer: D
Explanation:
VLANs provide the following advantages:
* VLANs enable logical grouping of end-stations that are physically dispersed on a network. …
* VLANs reduce the need to have routers deployed on a network to contain broadcast traffic. …
* Confinement of broadcast domains on a network significantly reduces traffic.
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QUESTION 1
Note: This question is a part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Your company has 1,000 users in a Microsoft Office 365 subscription. A Power BI administrator named Admin1 creates 20 dashboards and shares them with 50 users.
You discover that a use name User1 can access all the dashboards. You need to prevent User1 from accessing all the dashboards.

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QUESTION 21
You are building a Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services multidimensional model over a SQL Server database.
In a cube named OrderAnalysis, there is a standard cube dimension named Stock Item.
This dimension has the following attributes:
Users report that the attributes Stock Item Key and Photo are distracting and are not providing any value.
They have asked for the attributes to be removed. However, these attributes are needed by other cubes.
You need to hide the specified attributes from the end users of the OrderAnalysis cube. You do not want to change the structure of the dimension.
Which change should you make to the properties for the Stock Item Key and Photo attributes?

A.    Set the AttributeHierarchyVisible property to False.
B.    Set the AttributeHierarchyEnabledproperty to False.
C.    Set the AttributeVisibility property to Hidden.
D.    Set the Usage property to Regular.
E.    Set the AttributeHierarchyDisplayFolder property to Hidden.

Answer: A
Explanation:
The value of the AttributeHierarchyEnabled property determines whether an attribute hierarchy is created. If this property is set to False, the attribute hierarchy is not created and the attribute cannot be used as a level in a user hierarchy; the attribute hierarchy exists as a member property only. However, a disabled attribute hierarchy can still be used to order the members of another attribute. If the value of the AttributeHierarchyEnabled property is set to True, the value of the AttributeHierarchyVisible property determines whether the attribute hierarchy is visible independent of its use in a user-defined hierarchy.
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms166717(v=sql.110).aspx

QUESTION 22
You are optimizing a Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) multidimensional model over a SQL Server database.
You have a table named City which has several dimensions that do not contain a space in their names.
One dimension is named SalesTerritory rather than Sales Territory.
You need to ensure that Report developers can drag the attribute name to the report rather than having to re-label the attributes by implementing spaces.
You must minimize administrative effort and not break any upstream processes.
What should you do?

A.    In the SQL Server database, run the system procedure sp_rename to rename the columns in the base tables with the target name.
B.    In SQL Server Management Studio, navigate to the City table, expand the columns, press F2, and rename the columns in the base tables.
C.    In the SQL Server database, implement a SYNONYM.
D.    In the SQL Server database, implement a view over the City table that aliases the columns in the tables.

Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

You administer a Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) tabular model for a travel agency that specializes in vacation packages. Vacation bookings and packages are stored in a SQL Server database. You use the model as the basis for customer emails that highlight vacation packages that are currently underbooked, or projected to be underbooked.
The company plans to incorporate cruise ship vacation packages. Cruise ship vacation packages include new features such as region availability and cruise line specialties that require changes to the tabular model.
You must ensure that the tabular model reflects the new vacation packages.
You need to configure the tabular data model.
What should you do?

A.    Ensure that DirectQuery is enabled for the model.
B.    Ensure that DirectQuery is disabled for the model.
C.    Ensure that the Transactional Deployment property is set to True.
D.    Ensure that the Transactional Deployment property is set to False.
E.    Process the model in Process Full mode.
F.    Process the model in Process Data mode.
G.    Process the model in Process Defrag mode.

Answer: E
Explanation:
Process Full processes an Analysis Services object and all the objects that it contains. When Process Full is executed against an object that has already been processed, Analysis Services drops all data in the object, and then processes the object. This kind of processing is required when a structural change has been made to an object, for example, when an attribute hierarchy is added, deleted, or renamed.

QUESTION 24
Hotspot Question
A company has a multidimensional cube that is used for analyzing sales data.
You add a new measure named Transaction ?Total Including Tax and include the Supplier, Payment Method, and Transaction Type dimensions in the data model. The Transaction ?Total Including Tax measure uses the existing Customer and Date dimensions.
When users have queried the new measure in the past, they saw results as shown in the existing query output exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

241

The overall total is incorrectly displayed on every row. In addition, the results are no longer formatted correctly.
The query result should appear as shown in the desired query output exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

242

You need to ensure the table is displayed correctly.
What should you do? Use drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

243
Answer:

244
Explanation:
Box 1: Enter a custom MeasureExpression property on the measure
Calculated measures use MDX expressions to supply their values, instead of binding to columns in a data source. The Expression property contains the MDX expression used to supply the values for a Measure only if the Measure is a calculated measure. Otherwise, this property contains an empty string (“”).

QUESTION 25
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

You have a Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) instance that is configured to use multidimensional mode. You create the following cube:

251

Users need to be able to analyze sales by product and color.
You need to create the dimension.
Which relationship type should you use between the InternetSales table and the new dimension?

A.    no relationship
B.    regular
C.    fact
D.    referenced
E.    many-to-many
F.    data mining

Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Hotspot Question

You are a database administrator in a company that uses Microsoft SharePoint Server for all intranet sites. You are responsible for the installation of new database server instances.
You must install Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Server (SSAS) to support deployment of the following projects. You develop both projects by using SQL Server Data Tools.
You need to install the appropriate services to support both projects.
What should you do? In the table below, select the appropriate services for each project. NOTE: Make only one selection in each column. Each correct selection is worth one point.

261
Answer:

262
Explanation:
Project1:
Project2: Multidimensional
Note: Analysis Services can be installed in one of three server modes: Multidimensional and Data Mining (default), Power Pivot for SharePoint, and Tabular.

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The current dimension design does not allow the retention of historical changes to customer attributes such as Postcode.
You need to redesign the dimension to enable the full historical reporting of changes to multiple customer attributes including Postcode.
What should you do?

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QUESTION 1
Given:

11

Which option enables the code to compile?

12

A.    Option A
B.    Option B
C.    Option C
D.    Option D

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Given the code fragment:

21

What is the result?

A.    [Robb, Rick, Bran]
B.    [Robb, Rick]
C.    [Robb, Bran, Rick, Bran]
D.    An exception is thrown at runtime.

Answer: A
Explanation:
After adding elements to names we have a list with four elements and element “Bran” repeated.
After removing element “Bran” we have a list with three elements [Robb, Rick, Bran].
remove method removes the first occurrence of the specified element from this list, if it is present. If the list does not contain the element, it is unchanged.
https://docs.oracle.com/javase/8/docs/api/java/util/ArrayList.html#remove-java.lang.Object-

QUESTION 3
Given:

31

What is the result?

A.    C B A
B.    C
C.    A B C
D.    Compilation fails at line n1 and line n2

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Given:

41

What is the result?

A.    3 4 5 6
B.    3 4 3 6
C.    5 4 5 6
D.    3 6 4 6

Answer: C
Explanation:
Since variable i is static, it is shared by all instances of X. When code executes x2.i = 5, x1.i = 5 too.
Since variable j isn’t static, each instance of X has its own copy of j.

QUESTION 5
Given the code fragment:

51

Which code fragment, when inserted at line 3, enables the code to print 10:20?

A.    int[] array = new int[2];
B.    int[] array;
array = int[2];
C.    int array = new int[2];
D.    int array [2] ;

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Given the code fragment:

61

What is the result?

A.    A B C Work done
B.    A B C D Work done
C.    A Work done
D.    Compilation fails

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which three are advantages of the Java exception mechanism?

A.    Improves the program structure because the error handling code is separated from the normal program function
B.    Provides a set of standard exceptions that covers all the possible errors
C.    Improves the program structure because the programmer can choose where to handle exceptions
D.    Improves the program structure because exceptions must be handled in the method in which they occurred
E.    Allows the creation of new exceptions that are tailored to the particular program being created

Answer: ACE
Explanation:
B is false. Standard exceptions not cover all possible errors.
D is false. Exceptions don’t have to be handled in the method in which they occurred.

QUESTION 8
Given the code from the Greeting.Java file:

81

Which set of commands prints Hello Duke in the console?

82

A.    Option A
B.    Option B
C.    Option C
D.    Option D

Answer: C
Explanation:
Source code file names must have .java suffixes to compile with javac
We interpret or run the program with “java <class name without suffix> arguments”
http://docs.oracle.com/javase/8/docs/technotes/tools/windows/javac.html
http://docs.oracle.com/javase/8/docs/technotes/tools/windows/java.html

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QUESTION 1
Which three statements are true regarding Flex ASM on a four-node cluster consisting of three-hub nodes and a leaf node?

A.    An ASM instance and database instances can coexist on the same hub node.
B.    A database instance on a hub node can be a client of an ASM instance running on any leaf node.
C.    A database instance on a hub node can be a client of an ASM instance running on any hub node.
D.    A database instance on a leaf node can be a client of an ASM instance running on any hub node.
E.    A database instance on a hub node uses an ASM instance as an I/O server when requesting I/O todiskgroups.
F.    ASM Cluster File System (ASFS) can only be deployed on hub nodes.

Answer: ACF
Explanation:
Architecturally Oracle Flex Cluster comprises of a Hub and Leaf architecture where in only the Hub nodes will only have direct access to Oracle Cluster Registry (OCR) and Voting Disk (VD). However application can access the database via Leaf nodes without ASM instance NOT running on Leaf nodes. The connection to the database is through Hub making it transparent for the application.
Note:
Hub Nodes are connected among them via private network and have direct access to the shared storage just like previous versions. These nodes are the ones that access the Oracle Cluster Registry (OCR) and Voting Disk (VD) directly.
Leaf Nodes are lighter and are not connected among them, neither accesses the shared storage like the Hub Nodes. Each Leaf Node communicates with the Hub Node that is attached to, and it is connected to the cluster via the Hub Node that is linked to.
http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/articles/database/flexasm-flexcluster-benefits-odb12c-2177371.html

QUESTION 2
Which two statements are true about initialization parameters for Clustered ASM instances?

A.    A change to ASM_DISKSTRING requires a restart of all ASM instances for the change to take effect.
B.    ASM_POWER_LIMIT controls he number of RDBMS instances that can access a disk group while it isbeing rebalanced.
C.    The ASM_DISKGROUP parameter is optional.
D.    The default value of INSTANT_TYPE is ASM.
E.    The maximum value of ASM_POWER_LIMIT is 1024.

Answer: CE
Explanation:
C: The default value of the ASM_DISKGROUPS parameter is a NULL string. If the parameter value is NULL or is not specified, then ASM does not mount any disk groups.
E: The ASM_POWER_LIMIT initialization parameter specifies the default power for disk rebalancing in a disk group. The range of values is 0 to 1024.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The ASM_POWER_LIMIT initialization parameter specifies the default power for disk rebalancing in a disk group. The range of values is 0 to 1024.
D: The default value of INSTANT_TYPE is RDBMS.
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e18951/asminst.htm#BHCEHJGA

QUESTION 3
Which three statements are true concerning diagnostic components and requirements of Oracle 12c Clusterware?

A.    There is one ologgered service for the cluster health monitor (CHM) on each cluster node regardless ofcluster size.
B.    The Grid Infrastructure Management Repository database must run on a hub node if Flex Clusters areused.
C.    There is one osysmond service for the cluster health monitor (CHM) on each cluster node regardless ofcluster size.
D.    The oclumon utility may be used to get and set parameters for the cluster health monitor (CHM) repository.
E.    The diagcollection.pl script must be run from the Grid home directory as the Grid infrastructure owner.
F.    The clusterware log files are stored inside the Grid Infrastructure Management Repository database usedby the cluster health monitor (CHM).

Answer: BCD
Explanation:
B: The Oracle Grid Infrastructure Management Repository Runs on one node in the cluster.This must be a Hub Node in an Oracle Flex Cluster configuration.
C: There is one system monitor service on every node. The system monitor service (osysmond) is a real-time, monitoring and operating system metric collection service that sends the data to the cluster logger service.
D: Use the oclumon manage command to view and change configuration information from the system monitor service.
Syntax
   oclumon manage -repos {{changeretentiontime time} | {changerepossize
   memory_size}} | -get {key1 [key2 …] | alllogger [-details] | mylogger [-details]}
Where changerepossize memory_size: Use this option to change the CHM repository space limit to a specified number of MB.
Note: The OCLUMON command-line tool is included with CHM and you can use it to query the CHM repository to display node-specific metrics for a specified time period. You can also use OCLUMON to perform miscellaneous administrative tasks, such as changing the debug levels, querying the version of CHM, and changing the metrics database size.
Incorrect Answers:
E: You can collect CHM data from any node in the cluster by running the Grid_home/bin/diagcollection.pl script on the node.
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CWADD/troubleshoot.htm#CHDIGCEC

QUESTION 4
PROD1, PROD2 and PROD3 are three active instances of the PROD database.
Examine these commands executed on PROD1:

SQL > ALTER SYSTEM SET PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS=200 SCOPE=MEMORY sid=’*’; SQL > ALTER SYSTEM SET PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS=100 SCOPE=MEMORY sid=’PROD1′;

Which statement is true?

A.    PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS will be 200 for all instances of PROD.
B.    PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS will be 100 for all instances of PROD.
C.    The second statement returns an error because this parameter must be identical for all isntances.
D.    PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS will be 200 for PROD2 and PROD3 and 100 for PROD1.

Answer: D
Explanation:
First SET PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS is set to 200 for all instances, then it is set to 100 for PROD1.

QUESTION 5
Which three events occur when a hub node fails in an Oracle Clusterware 12c Flex Cluster?

A.    The hub node is evicted from the cluster
B.    Leaf nodes connected to the failing hub node are reconnected to a surviving hub node without servicedisruption.
C.    Cluster resources running on leaf nodes connected to the failed hub node are relocated to one or moresurviving hub nodes.
D.    Cluster resources running on leaf nodes connected to the failed hub node are relocated to one or moresurviving leaf nodes.
E.    Cluster resources running on the failed hub node are relocated to one or more surviving hub nodes.
F.    Cluster resources running on the failed hub node are relocated to one or more surviving leaf nodes.
G.    Cluster resources running on the failed hub node are relocated to one or more surviving hub nodes or leafnodes, or both.

Answer: ABE
Explanation:
Incorrect Answers:
F, G: Leaf Nodes are different from standard Oracle Grid Infrastructure nodes, in that they do not require direct access to shared storage, but instead request data through Hub Nodes. Hub Nodes can run in an Oracle Flex Cluster configuration without having any Leaf Nodes as cluster member nodes, but Leaf Nodes must be members of a cluster that includes at least one Hub Node.
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CWADD/bigcluster.htm#CWADD92409

QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true about Flex ASM in a Flex Cluster?

A.    Oracle databases from releases older than 12c cannot use Flex ASM.
B.    ASFS may only be configured on a hub node running an ASM instance.
C.    Instances of ASM-based databases on hosts that have no ASM instance running, require Flex ASM.
D.    Flex ASM requires that I/Os requests be sent through an ASM Proxy Instance, regardless of database andASM instance placement in a cluster.
E.    Hub nodes with connections from multiple leaf nodes must run an ASM instance.

Answer: BE
Explanation:
B: Oracle Automatic Storage Management Cluster File System (Oracle ACFS) can only be run on the hub nodes, not the leaf nodes. Architecturally Oracle Flex Cluster comprises of a Hub and Leaf architecture where in only the Hub nodes will only have direct access to Oracle Cluster Registry (OCR) and Voting Disk (VD).
E: application can access the database via Leaf nodes without ASM instance NOT running on Leaf nodes. The connection to the database is through Hub making it transparent for the application.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The Oracle Flex ASM can be implemented in two ways:
Pure 12c Flex ASM (Same Version)
Both Grid Infrastructure (GI) and Database running on Oracle 12c
Pre Oracle 12c Mixed (Different Versions)
As normal ASM instance will run on each node with Flex configuration to support pre 12c database. The compatibility parameter of ASM disk group is used to manage the compatibility of between and among database instances. Advantage of this approach is that if an Oracle 12c database instance loses connectivity with an ASM instance, then the database connections will failover to another ASM instance on a different server. This failover is achieved by setting the cardinality to all.
http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/articles/database/flexasm-flexcluster-benefits-odb12c-2177371.html

QUESTION 7
Which three statements are true about the cluster file system archiving scheme?

A.    Each node can read only the archived logs written by itself.
B.    Nodes don’t use network to archive files.
C.    Each node can read the archive redo log files of the other nodes.
D.    Each node archives to a uniquely named local directory.
E.    Each node archives to a local directory with the same path on each cluster node.
F.    Each node writes to a single location on the cluster file system while archiving the redo log files.

Answer: BCF
Explanation:
Initialization Parameter Settings for the Cluster File System Archiving Scheme
In the cluster file system scheme, each node archives to a directory that is identified with the same name on all instances within the cluster database (/arc_dest, in the following example). To configure this directory, set values for the LOG_ARCH_DEST_1 parameter, as shown in the following example:
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/RACAD/rman.htm#RACAD320

QUESTION 8
Which three statements are true regarding multitenant architecture for RAC databases?

A.    One UNDO tablespace for each PDB is required.
B.    One UNDO tablespace for each instance is required.
C.    PDBs can have local temporary tablespaces.
D.    All the containers share the same SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces.
E.    You can open one, several, or all PDBs on one, several, or all CDB instances.

Answer: BCE
Explanation:
B: For an Oracle RAC CDB, one active undo tablespace exists for each instance.
C: From a physical perspective, a CDB has basically the same structure as a non-CDB, except that each PDB has its own set of tablespaces (including its own SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces) and data files.
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CNCPT/cdblogic.htm#CNCPT89268

QUESTION 9
Which two statements are true about ASM alias names?

A.    ASM files created using an alias name are not OMF files even if OMF is enabled.
B.    Alias file names cannot be used together with templates when creating tablespaces.
C.    ASM files created using an alias name are OMF files even if OMF is not enabled.
D.    Alias names can be stored only in user-defined directories.
E.    ASM files created using an alias name also have a fully qualified name and can be accessed by eithername.

Answer: AE

QUESTION 10
Which three statements are true concerning activation of a user-defined policy in Oracle 12c Clusterware?

A.    When a policy is first created, it is initially active.
B.    When a policy is activated, nodes may be reassigned to server pools based on the policy definition.
C.    An administrator-defined policy may be activated using the srvctl utility.
D.    When a policy is activated, resources cannot be automatically started to comply with the policy definition.
E.    When a policy is first created, it is initially inactive.
F.    When a policy is activated, resources can be automatically stopped to comply with the policy definition.

Answer: BCE
Explanation:
BE: You can activate policies when necessary, prompting Oracle Clusterware to reconfigure a server pool according to each policy’s configuration.
C: The following command activates the DayTime policy:
  $ crsctl modify policyset -attr “LAST_ACTIVATED_POLICY=DayTime”
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CWADD/pbmgmt.htm#CWADD92594

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QUESTION 31
Which of the following characteristics differentiate a rainbow table attack from a brute force attack? (Select TWO).

A.    Rainbow table attacks greatly reduce compute cycles at attack time.
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