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QUESTION 1
Which definition of a process in Windows is true?

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QUESTION 1
A router’s static route is set by the:

A.    Adjacent network
B.    Next upstream router
C.    Network administrator
D.    Routing protocol

Answer: C
Explanation:
Static routing is a form of routing that occurs when a router uses a manually-configured routing entry, rather than information from a dynamic routing protocol to forward traffic.

QUESTION 2
Which setting is used to determine the Domain Name System (DNS) settings on a client computer?

A.    TELNET
B.    NSLOOKUP
C.    PATHPING
D.    NETSTAT

Answer: B
Explanation:
nslookup is a network administration command-line tool available for many computer operating systems for querying the Domain Name System (DNS) to obtain domain name or IP address mapping or for any other specific DNS record.

QUESTION 3
The host name of the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) mail.exchange.corp.nwtraders.com is:

A.    corp
B.    com
C.    nwtraders
D.    exchange
E.    mail

Answer: E
Explanation:
Hostnames are composed of series of labels concatenated with dots, as are all domain names. For example, let’s break mail.google.com into its component parts: mail is the host or local hostname; and google.com is the domain or parent domain name.

QUESTION 4
To which IP configuration does the CIDR notation 192.168.1.1/25 refer?

A.    192.168.1.1 255.255.255.64
B.    192.168.1.1 255.255.255.1
C.    192.168.1.1 255.255.255.32
D.    192.168.1.1 255.255.255.256
E.    192.168.1.1 255.255.255.128

Answer: E

QUESTION 5
Which command is used to verify that a server is connected to the network?

A.    IPCONFIG
B.    ROUTE
C.    PING
D.    CHECK

Answer: C
Explanation:
Ping is a computer network administration software utility used to test the reachability of a host on an Internet Protocol (IP) network and to measure the round-trip time for messages sent from the originating host to a destination computer.

QUESTION 6
Which of these represents the Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) loopback address?

A.    127.0.0.1
B.    192.168.0.1
C.    FEC0:A8C0::AA01
D.    ::1

Answer: D
Explanation:
The localhost (loopback) address, 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1, and the IPv6 unspecified address, 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:0, are reduced to ::1 and ::, respectively.

QUESTION 7
Which of these addresses is a multicast address?

A.    127.0.0.1
B.    169.254.0.1
C.    192.168.0.1
D.    224.0.0.1

Answer: D
Explanation:
The full range of multicast addresses is from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255.

QUESTION 8
Which of the following uses pointer records and A records?

A.    IDS
B.    DNS Server
C.    NAT Server
D.    IPS

Answer: B
Explanation:
DNS records include:
* A
Address record
* PTR
Pointer record

QUESTION 9
The ipconfig command will:

A.    Configure routers
B.    Display a client’s address
C.    Display a client’s broadcast mode
D.    Configure DHCP clients

Answer: B
Explanation:
Displays all current TCP/IP network configuration values and refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. Used without parameters, ipconfig displays the IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway for all adapters.

QUESTION 10
One reason to incorporate VLANs in a network is to:

A.    Increase the number of available IP addresses.
B.    Increase the number of available Media Access Control (MAC) addresses.
C.    Reduce the number of broadcast domains.
D.    Reduce the number of nodes in a broadcast domain.

Answer: D
Explanation:
VLANs provide the following advantages:
* VLANs enable logical grouping of end-stations that are physically dispersed on a network. …
* VLANs reduce the need to have routers deployed on a network to contain broadcast traffic. …
* Confinement of broadcast domains on a network significantly reduces traffic.
By confining the broadcast domains, end-stations on a VLAN are prevented from listening to or receiving broadcasts not intended for them. Moreover, if a router is not connected between the VLANs, the end- stations of a VLAN cannot communicate with the end-stations of the other VLANs.

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QUESTION 1
Note: This question is a part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Your company has 1,000 users in a Microsoft Office 365 subscription. A Power BI administrator named Admin1 creates 20 dashboards and shares them with 50 users.
You discover that a use name User1 can access all the dashboards. You need to prevent User1 from accessing all the dashboards.

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QUESTION 21
You are building a Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services multidimensional model over a SQL Server database.
In a cube named OrderAnalysis, there is a standard cube dimension named Stock Item.
This dimension has the following attributes:
Users report that the attributes Stock Item Key and Photo are distracting and are not providing any value.
They have asked for the attributes to be removed. However, these attributes are needed by other cubes.
You need to hide the specified attributes from the end users of the OrderAnalysis cube. You do not want to change the structure of the dimension.
Which change should you make to the properties for the Stock Item Key and Photo attributes?

A.    Set the AttributeHierarchyVisible property to False.
B.    Set the AttributeHierarchyEnabledproperty to False.
C.    Set the AttributeVisibility property to Hidden.
D.    Set the Usage property to Regular.
E.    Set the AttributeHierarchyDisplayFolder property to Hidden.

Answer: A
Explanation:
The value of the AttributeHierarchyEnabled property determines whether an attribute hierarchy is created. If this property is set to False, the attribute hierarchy is not created and the attribute cannot be used as a level in a user hierarchy; the attribute hierarchy exists as a member property only. However, a disabled attribute hierarchy can still be used to order the members of another attribute. If the value of the AttributeHierarchyEnabled property is set to True, the value of the AttributeHierarchyVisible property determines whether the attribute hierarchy is visible independent of its use in a user-defined hierarchy.
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms166717(v=sql.110).aspx

QUESTION 22
You are optimizing a Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) multidimensional model over a SQL Server database.
You have a table named City which has several dimensions that do not contain a space in their names.
One dimension is named SalesTerritory rather than Sales Territory.
You need to ensure that Report developers can drag the attribute name to the report rather than having to re-label the attributes by implementing spaces.
You must minimize administrative effort and not break any upstream processes.
What should you do?

A.    In the SQL Server database, run the system procedure sp_rename to rename the columns in the base tables with the target name.
B.    In SQL Server Management Studio, navigate to the City table, expand the columns, press F2, and rename the columns in the base tables.
C.    In the SQL Server database, implement a SYNONYM.
D.    In the SQL Server database, implement a view over the City table that aliases the columns in the tables.

Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

You administer a Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) tabular model for a travel agency that specializes in vacation packages. Vacation bookings and packages are stored in a SQL Server database. You use the model as the basis for customer emails that highlight vacation packages that are currently underbooked, or projected to be underbooked.
The company plans to incorporate cruise ship vacation packages. Cruise ship vacation packages include new features such as region availability and cruise line specialties that require changes to the tabular model.
You must ensure that the tabular model reflects the new vacation packages.
You need to configure the tabular data model.
What should you do?

A.    Ensure that DirectQuery is enabled for the model.
B.    Ensure that DirectQuery is disabled for the model.
C.    Ensure that the Transactional Deployment property is set to True.
D.    Ensure that the Transactional Deployment property is set to False.
E.    Process the model in Process Full mode.
F.    Process the model in Process Data mode.
G.    Process the model in Process Defrag mode.

Answer: E
Explanation:
Process Full processes an Analysis Services object and all the objects that it contains. When Process Full is executed against an object that has already been processed, Analysis Services drops all data in the object, and then processes the object. This kind of processing is required when a structural change has been made to an object, for example, when an attribute hierarchy is added, deleted, or renamed.

QUESTION 24
Hotspot Question
A company has a multidimensional cube that is used for analyzing sales data.
You add a new measure named Transaction ?Total Including Tax and include the Supplier, Payment Method, and Transaction Type dimensions in the data model. The Transaction ?Total Including Tax measure uses the existing Customer and Date dimensions.
When users have queried the new measure in the past, they saw results as shown in the existing query output exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

241

The overall total is incorrectly displayed on every row. In addition, the results are no longer formatted correctly.
The query result should appear as shown in the desired query output exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

242

You need to ensure the table is displayed correctly.
What should you do? Use drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

243
Answer:

244
Explanation:
Box 1: Enter a custom MeasureExpression property on the measure
Calculated measures use MDX expressions to supply their values, instead of binding to columns in a data source. The Expression property contains the MDX expression used to supply the values for a Measure only if the Measure is a calculated measure. Otherwise, this property contains an empty string (“”).

QUESTION 25
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

You have a Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) instance that is configured to use multidimensional mode. You create the following cube:

251

Users need to be able to analyze sales by product and color.
You need to create the dimension.
Which relationship type should you use between the InternetSales table and the new dimension?

A.    no relationship
B.    regular
C.    fact
D.    referenced
E.    many-to-many
F.    data mining

Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Hotspot Question

You are a database administrator in a company that uses Microsoft SharePoint Server for all intranet sites. You are responsible for the installation of new database server instances.
You must install Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Server (SSAS) to support deployment of the following projects. You develop both projects by using SQL Server Data Tools.
You need to install the appropriate services to support both projects.
What should you do? In the table below, select the appropriate services for each project. NOTE: Make only one selection in each column. Each correct selection is worth one point.

261
Answer:

262
Explanation:
Project1:
Project2: Multidimensional
Note: Analysis Services can be installed in one of three server modes: Multidimensional and Data Mining (default), Power Pivot for SharePoint, and Tabular.

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QUESTION 1
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The current dimension design does not allow the retention of historical changes to customer attributes such as Postcode.
You need to redesign the dimension to enable the full historical reporting of changes to multiple customer attributes including Postcode.
What should you do?

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QUESTION 1
Given:

11

Which option enables the code to compile?

12

A.    Option A
B.    Option B
C.    Option C
D.    Option D

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Given the code fragment:

21

What is the result?

A.    [Robb, Rick, Bran]
B.    [Robb, Rick]
C.    [Robb, Bran, Rick, Bran]
D.    An exception is thrown at runtime.

Answer: A
Explanation:
After adding elements to names we have a list with four elements and element “Bran” repeated.
After removing element “Bran” we have a list with three elements [Robb, Rick, Bran].
remove method removes the first occurrence of the specified element from this list, if it is present. If the list does not contain the element, it is unchanged.
https://docs.oracle.com/javase/8/docs/api/java/util/ArrayList.html#remove-java.lang.Object-

QUESTION 3
Given:

31

What is the result?

A.    C B A
B.    C
C.    A B C
D.    Compilation fails at line n1 and line n2

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Given:

41

What is the result?

A.    3 4 5 6
B.    3 4 3 6
C.    5 4 5 6
D.    3 6 4 6

Answer: C
Explanation:
Since variable i is static, it is shared by all instances of X. When code executes x2.i = 5, x1.i = 5 too.
Since variable j isn’t static, each instance of X has its own copy of j.

QUESTION 5
Given the code fragment:

51

Which code fragment, when inserted at line 3, enables the code to print 10:20?

A.    int[] array = new int[2];
B.    int[] array;
array = int[2];
C.    int array = new int[2];
D.    int array [2] ;

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Given the code fragment:

61

What is the result?

A.    A B C Work done
B.    A B C D Work done
C.    A Work done
D.    Compilation fails

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which three are advantages of the Java exception mechanism?

A.    Improves the program structure because the error handling code is separated from the normal program function
B.    Provides a set of standard exceptions that covers all the possible errors
C.    Improves the program structure because the programmer can choose where to handle exceptions
D.    Improves the program structure because exceptions must be handled in the method in which they occurred
E.    Allows the creation of new exceptions that are tailored to the particular program being created

Answer: ACE
Explanation:
B is false. Standard exceptions not cover all possible errors.
D is false. Exceptions don’t have to be handled in the method in which they occurred.

QUESTION 8
Given the code from the Greeting.Java file:

81

Which set of commands prints Hello Duke in the console?

82

A.    Option A
B.    Option B
C.    Option C
D.    Option D

Answer: C
Explanation:
Source code file names must have .java suffixes to compile with javac
We interpret or run the program with “java <class name without suffix> arguments”
http://docs.oracle.com/javase/8/docs/technotes/tools/windows/javac.html
http://docs.oracle.com/javase/8/docs/technotes/tools/windows/java.html

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QUESTION 1
Which three statements are true regarding Flex ASM on a four-node cluster consisting of three-hub nodes and a leaf node?

A.    An ASM instance and database instances can coexist on the same hub node.
B.    A database instance on a hub node can be a client of an ASM instance running on any leaf node.
C.    A database instance on a hub node can be a client of an ASM instance running on any hub node.
D.    A database instance on a leaf node can be a client of an ASM instance running on any hub node.
E.    A database instance on a hub node uses an ASM instance as an I/O server when requesting I/O todiskgroups.
F.    ASM Cluster File System (ASFS) can only be deployed on hub nodes.

Answer: ACF
Explanation:
Architecturally Oracle Flex Cluster comprises of a Hub and Leaf architecture where in only the Hub nodes will only have direct access to Oracle Cluster Registry (OCR) and Voting Disk (VD). However application can access the database via Leaf nodes without ASM instance NOT running on Leaf nodes. The connection to the database is through Hub making it transparent for the application.
Note:
Hub Nodes are connected among them via private network and have direct access to the shared storage just like previous versions. These nodes are the ones that access the Oracle Cluster Registry (OCR) and Voting Disk (VD) directly.
Leaf Nodes are lighter and are not connected among them, neither accesses the shared storage like the Hub Nodes. Each Leaf Node communicates with the Hub Node that is attached to, and it is connected to the cluster via the Hub Node that is linked to.
http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/articles/database/flexasm-flexcluster-benefits-odb12c-2177371.html

QUESTION 2
Which two statements are true about initialization parameters for Clustered ASM instances?

A.    A change to ASM_DISKSTRING requires a restart of all ASM instances for the change to take effect.
B.    ASM_POWER_LIMIT controls he number of RDBMS instances that can access a disk group while it isbeing rebalanced.
C.    The ASM_DISKGROUP parameter is optional.
D.    The default value of INSTANT_TYPE is ASM.
E.    The maximum value of ASM_POWER_LIMIT is 1024.

Answer: CE
Explanation:
C: The default value of the ASM_DISKGROUPS parameter is a NULL string. If the parameter value is NULL or is not specified, then ASM does not mount any disk groups.
E: The ASM_POWER_LIMIT initialization parameter specifies the default power for disk rebalancing in a disk group. The range of values is 0 to 1024.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The ASM_POWER_LIMIT initialization parameter specifies the default power for disk rebalancing in a disk group. The range of values is 0 to 1024.
D: The default value of INSTANT_TYPE is RDBMS.
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e18951/asminst.htm#BHCEHJGA

QUESTION 3
Which three statements are true concerning diagnostic components and requirements of Oracle 12c Clusterware?

A.    There is one ologgered service for the cluster health monitor (CHM) on each cluster node regardless ofcluster size.
B.    The Grid Infrastructure Management Repository database must run on a hub node if Flex Clusters areused.
C.    There is one osysmond service for the cluster health monitor (CHM) on each cluster node regardless ofcluster size.
D.    The oclumon utility may be used to get and set parameters for the cluster health monitor (CHM) repository.
E.    The diagcollection.pl script must be run from the Grid home directory as the Grid infrastructure owner.
F.    The clusterware log files are stored inside the Grid Infrastructure Management Repository database usedby the cluster health monitor (CHM).

Answer: BCD
Explanation:
B: The Oracle Grid Infrastructure Management Repository Runs on one node in the cluster.This must be a Hub Node in an Oracle Flex Cluster configuration.
C: There is one system monitor service on every node. The system monitor service (osysmond) is a real-time, monitoring and operating system metric collection service that sends the data to the cluster logger service.
D: Use the oclumon manage command to view and change configuration information from the system monitor service.
Syntax
   oclumon manage -repos {{changeretentiontime time} | {changerepossize
   memory_size}} | -get {key1 [key2 …] | alllogger [-details] | mylogger [-details]}
Where changerepossize memory_size: Use this option to change the CHM repository space limit to a specified number of MB.
Note: The OCLUMON command-line tool is included with CHM and you can use it to query the CHM repository to display node-specific metrics for a specified time period. You can also use OCLUMON to perform miscellaneous administrative tasks, such as changing the debug levels, querying the version of CHM, and changing the metrics database size.
Incorrect Answers:
E: You can collect CHM data from any node in the cluster by running the Grid_home/bin/diagcollection.pl script on the node.
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CWADD/troubleshoot.htm#CHDIGCEC

QUESTION 4
PROD1, PROD2 and PROD3 are three active instances of the PROD database.
Examine these commands executed on PROD1:

SQL > ALTER SYSTEM SET PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS=200 SCOPE=MEMORY sid=’*’; SQL > ALTER SYSTEM SET PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS=100 SCOPE=MEMORY sid=’PROD1′;

Which statement is true?

A.    PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS will be 200 for all instances of PROD.
B.    PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS will be 100 for all instances of PROD.
C.    The second statement returns an error because this parameter must be identical for all isntances.
D.    PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS will be 200 for PROD2 and PROD3 and 100 for PROD1.

Answer: D
Explanation:
First SET PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS is set to 200 for all instances, then it is set to 100 for PROD1.

QUESTION 5
Which three events occur when a hub node fails in an Oracle Clusterware 12c Flex Cluster?

A.    The hub node is evicted from the cluster
B.    Leaf nodes connected to the failing hub node are reconnected to a surviving hub node without servicedisruption.
C.    Cluster resources running on leaf nodes connected to the failed hub node are relocated to one or moresurviving hub nodes.
D.    Cluster resources running on leaf nodes connected to the failed hub node are relocated to one or moresurviving leaf nodes.
E.    Cluster resources running on the failed hub node are relocated to one or more surviving hub nodes.
F.    Cluster resources running on the failed hub node are relocated to one or more surviving leaf nodes.
G.    Cluster resources running on the failed hub node are relocated to one or more surviving hub nodes or leafnodes, or both.

Answer: ABE
Explanation:
Incorrect Answers:
F, G: Leaf Nodes are different from standard Oracle Grid Infrastructure nodes, in that they do not require direct access to shared storage, but instead request data through Hub Nodes. Hub Nodes can run in an Oracle Flex Cluster configuration without having any Leaf Nodes as cluster member nodes, but Leaf Nodes must be members of a cluster that includes at least one Hub Node.
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CWADD/bigcluster.htm#CWADD92409

QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true about Flex ASM in a Flex Cluster?

A.    Oracle databases from releases older than 12c cannot use Flex ASM.
B.    ASFS may only be configured on a hub node running an ASM instance.
C.    Instances of ASM-based databases on hosts that have no ASM instance running, require Flex ASM.
D.    Flex ASM requires that I/Os requests be sent through an ASM Proxy Instance, regardless of database andASM instance placement in a cluster.
E.    Hub nodes with connections from multiple leaf nodes must run an ASM instance.

Answer: BE
Explanation:
B: Oracle Automatic Storage Management Cluster File System (Oracle ACFS) can only be run on the hub nodes, not the leaf nodes. Architecturally Oracle Flex Cluster comprises of a Hub and Leaf architecture where in only the Hub nodes will only have direct access to Oracle Cluster Registry (OCR) and Voting Disk (VD).
E: application can access the database via Leaf nodes without ASM instance NOT running on Leaf nodes. The connection to the database is through Hub making it transparent for the application.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The Oracle Flex ASM can be implemented in two ways:
Pure 12c Flex ASM (Same Version)
Both Grid Infrastructure (GI) and Database running on Oracle 12c
Pre Oracle 12c Mixed (Different Versions)
As normal ASM instance will run on each node with Flex configuration to support pre 12c database. The compatibility parameter of ASM disk group is used to manage the compatibility of between and among database instances. Advantage of this approach is that if an Oracle 12c database instance loses connectivity with an ASM instance, then the database connections will failover to another ASM instance on a different server. This failover is achieved by setting the cardinality to all.
http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/articles/database/flexasm-flexcluster-benefits-odb12c-2177371.html

QUESTION 7
Which three statements are true about the cluster file system archiving scheme?

A.    Each node can read only the archived logs written by itself.
B.    Nodes don’t use network to archive files.
C.    Each node can read the archive redo log files of the other nodes.
D.    Each node archives to a uniquely named local directory.
E.    Each node archives to a local directory with the same path on each cluster node.
F.    Each node writes to a single location on the cluster file system while archiving the redo log files.

Answer: BCF
Explanation:
Initialization Parameter Settings for the Cluster File System Archiving Scheme
In the cluster file system scheme, each node archives to a directory that is identified with the same name on all instances within the cluster database (/arc_dest, in the following example). To configure this directory, set values for the LOG_ARCH_DEST_1 parameter, as shown in the following example:
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/RACAD/rman.htm#RACAD320

QUESTION 8
Which three statements are true regarding multitenant architecture for RAC databases?

A.    One UNDO tablespace for each PDB is required.
B.    One UNDO tablespace for each instance is required.
C.    PDBs can have local temporary tablespaces.
D.    All the containers share the same SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces.
E.    You can open one, several, or all PDBs on one, several, or all CDB instances.

Answer: BCE
Explanation:
B: For an Oracle RAC CDB, one active undo tablespace exists for each instance.
C: From a physical perspective, a CDB has basically the same structure as a non-CDB, except that each PDB has its own set of tablespaces (including its own SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces) and data files.
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CNCPT/cdblogic.htm#CNCPT89268

QUESTION 9
Which two statements are true about ASM alias names?

A.    ASM files created using an alias name are not OMF files even if OMF is enabled.
B.    Alias file names cannot be used together with templates when creating tablespaces.
C.    ASM files created using an alias name are OMF files even if OMF is not enabled.
D.    Alias names can be stored only in user-defined directories.
E.    ASM files created using an alias name also have a fully qualified name and can be accessed by eithername.

Answer: AE

QUESTION 10
Which three statements are true concerning activation of a user-defined policy in Oracle 12c Clusterware?

A.    When a policy is first created, it is initially active.
B.    When a policy is activated, nodes may be reassigned to server pools based on the policy definition.
C.    An administrator-defined policy may be activated using the srvctl utility.
D.    When a policy is activated, resources cannot be automatically started to comply with the policy definition.
E.    When a policy is first created, it is initially inactive.
F.    When a policy is activated, resources can be automatically stopped to comply with the policy definition.

Answer: BCE
Explanation:
BE: You can activate policies when necessary, prompting Oracle Clusterware to reconfigure a server pool according to each policy’s configuration.
C: The following command activates the DayTime policy:
  $ crsctl modify policyset -attr “LAST_ACTIVATED_POLICY=DayTime”
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CWADD/pbmgmt.htm#CWADD92594

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QUESTION 21
You are a developer for an Independent Software Vendor (ISV).

You need to create new extended data types in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations.

What are two best practices for extending a series of data types?Each correct answer presents acomplete solution.

A.    An EDT should be created for each atomic entity being utilized.
B.    Subtypes are not required for EDTs that do not contain any property changes.
C.    You cannot extend the recID or tableID system data types.
D.    You cannot use EDTs if one of them is a member of the parent extended data.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
Whenever possible, you will want to use EDTs and EDTs should be created for each atomic entity in thesituation that your application is modeling.You should only create subtypes when they are needed. In other words, when you are creating an EDTthat extends another EDT, but you aren’t changing any of its properties, you probably do not need tocreate a new subtype.

QUESTION 22
You are installing Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Retail at a store location.

You want to share a drawer between point-of-sale (POS) clients.

To achieve this goal, which component should you install on the computer connected to the cash drawer?

A.    Hardware Station
B.    Cloud POS
C.    Commerce Runtime (CRT)
D.    Retail Server

Answer: A
Explanation:
Retail hardware station provides services that enable retail POS clients and peripherals such as printers, cash drawers, and payment devices to communicate with retail server.

QUESTION 23
You manage a Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Retail environment.

You are preparing to deploy packages.
Which two types of items can you deploy as a package? Each correct answer presents a completesolution.

A.    a binary hotfix to the Application Object Server (AOS) runtime components
B.    an updated Dynamics 365 for Retail customization package
C.    a Microsoft Dynamics 365 Language Pack
D.    a Retail Software Development Kit (SDK)

Answer: AB
Explanation:
A deployable package is a unit of deployment that can be applied in any Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Retailenvironment. A deployable package can be a binary hotfix to the Application Object Server (AOS) runtimecomponents, an updated Dynamics 365 for Retail customization package, or a new Microsoft Dynamics365 for Retail customization/application module package.

QUESTION 24
You are adding a relationship to a table.

Which two best practices should you follow? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Define a navigational relationship; the validate property on the relation should be set to “Yes” for easier navigation.
B.    Set the validate property to No when you are using navigational relationships so that the application is easy to navigate.
C.    Name the relationship with an “_rel” suffix in order to differentiate it from the index that is appended with”_idx”.
D.    Define the relationship to a foreign key on the child table by setting the validate property on the relation to Yes.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 25
What are two benefits of applying a form pattern to a form? Each correct answer presents part of thesolution.

A.    ensures data consistency by enforcing common relationship patterns between datasources
B.    provides default values for many properties on controls
C.    enforces a consistent style so that the forms a user encounters are immediately recognizable
D.    allows a developer to create many delivered forms from a base form

Answer: BC
Explanation:
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Enterprise Edition, makes development easier byproviding a guided experience for applying patterns to forms to ensure they are correct and consistent.
They help validate forms and control structures and the use of controls incertain places. Using patternsalso ensures that each new form encountered by a user is immediatelyrecognizable in appearance andfunction. Form patterns can provide many default control properties, which leads to a more guideddevelopment experience.

QUESTION 26
You are an Independent Software Vendor (ISV) developer and are reviewinganother developer’s changesto a project.

You run the Best Practices Fixer on the project. The following error message appears in the error list in Visual Studio for the display menu item XYZ:

BP Rule: [BPErrorMenuItemNotCoveredByPrivilege]:Path: [dynamics://MenuItemDisplay/
XYZ]:BPErrorMenuItemNotCoveredByPrivilege: ‘AxMenuItemDisplay’ ‘XYZ’ is not covered by privilege: XYZ
(USR) [YourModule]

Based on this error message, which recommendation should you make to the developer?

A.    Add the XYZ display menu item to the Entry Points of a new or existing Security Privilege in the Your Module model.
B.    Set the Create Permissions and Delete Permissions properties on the XYZ display menu item.
C.    Add the XYZ display menu item to the Entry Points of an extension of an existing Security Privilege in the Application Suite model.
D.    Set the Linked Permission Type property to Form, and the Linked Permission Object property to thename of the form on the XYZ display menu item.

Answer: A
Explanation:
BPErrorMenuItemNotCoveredByPrivilege: Only the system administrator role can access this form

QUESTION 27
You are working in a Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations environment that has an existingform named ModifyData and a display menu item named ModifyData1, which opens ModifyData. Youcreate a second menu item named ModifyData2 that also opens ModifyData.

Aprivilegenamed ModifyData1View has the ModifyData1 menu item as an entry point with Read access.

There is also a privilege named ModifyData1Maintain that has the ModifyData1 menu item as an entry point, with the Access Level property set to Delete. You create a new privilege named ModifyData2View and add the ModifyData2 menu item as an entry point. You set the Access Level property to Read on the ModifyData2 entry point.

You need to create a new duty named DataManager so that a role with this duty can delete data from ModifyData when accessed through ModifyData1 and read data on the ModifyData form when accessedthrough ModifyData2.

What should you do to achieve this goal?

A.    Grant the ModifyData1Maintain privilege and the ModifyData2View privilege to the DataManager duty.
B.    Grant the ModifyData2View privilege to the DataManager duty.
C.    Grant the ModifyData1Maintain privilege to the DataManager duty.
D.    Grant the ModifyData1View privilege and the ModifyData2View privilege to the DataManager duty.

Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Which of the Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations application stack provides financial and human resources management functionality?

A.    Application Suite
B.    Application Object
C.    Application Foundation
D.    Application Platform

Answer: A
Explanation:
Most of the functionality we associate with Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations is added in the Application Suite. Specific examples include the financial management, inventory or warehouse management, human resources management or the fleet management scenario.

QUESTION 29
You are creating a custom lookup form to look up records in a table.

You want to provide multiple views of the table on the form.

Which form pattern should you apply?

A.    Details Master with Standard Tabs
B.    Simple List
C.    Lookup with Tabs
D.    Dialog – Advanced Selection

Answer: C
Explanation:
Lookup basic?This is the basic Lookup pattern that has just one list or tree, and also optional customfilters and actions.
Lookup w/tabs?This Lookup pattern is used when more than oneview of the lookup can be madeavailable to the user. Tab captions aren’t shown. Instead, the tab is selected through a combo box.
Lookup w/preview?This more advanced Lookup pattern enables a preview of the current record in thelookup grid.

QUESTION 30
You are writing a method to update the Customer reference field on a Sales order table record. You begin by writing the following code:

class ExampleClass
{
/// <summary>
/// Update the Customer reference field on the Sales orders table.
/// </summary>
/// <param name = “_salesId”>
/// Sales order to update
/// </param>
/// <param name = “_customerRef”>
/// Updated Customer reference value
/// </param>
public static void updateSalesTableCustomerReference(SalesId _salesId,
CustRef _customerRef)
{
SalesTable salesTable;
}
}

Which statement will complete the method?

A.    salesTable = SalesTable::find(_salesId);
salesTable.CustomerRef = _customerRef;
salesTable.update();
B.    update_recordset salesTable
setting CustomerRef=_customerRef
where salesTable.salesid==_salesId;
C.    salesTable = SalesTable::find(_salesId, true); salesTable.CustomerRef = _customerRef;
salesTable.update();
D.    update_recordset salesTable
setting SalesId = _salesId
where salesTable.CustomerRef == _customerRef;

Answer: C

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