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QUESTION 31
Which two options are reasons why we are seeing increasing levels of business-led change? (Choose two.)

A.    Because IT solutions are going through a trend of decreasing costs.
B.    Because business requirements are changing rapidly.
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QUESTION 31
Which three options are considerations you have to take into account when communicating the business outcomes story? (Choose three.)

A.    Be aware of people’s time and length of presentation.
B.    Organize the presentation so that the message is clear and key points emerge early.
C.    Prepare carefully the agenda and the objectives definitions.
D.    Use the right verbal and corporate language.
E.    Know your audience and what is of interest to them.

Answer: ABE

QUESTION 32
Which option is the most effective way to use best practices or scenarios during the selling process?

A.    in use cases that are relevant to the customer
B.    in business cases used previously
C.    in customer briefing documents
D.    in customer benefits statements

Answer: A

QUESTION 33
Why is it convenient to tie business outcomes and the customer value proposition?

A.    Because it accelerates the time to market of new products and solutions while maintaining a reasonable cost structure.
B.    Because this way you can establish fixed business goals and priorities and facilitate the deployment project management.
C.    To reduce complexity for stakeholders, it is easier for them to describe the benefits and to influence others to gain support.
D.    Because it keeps the value proposition unchanged, it is easier for stakeholders to claim for accountability.

Answer: C

QUESTION 34
Which option is the main element of a Business Outcomes storyline?

A.    relevancy to customers’ strategy
B.    Cisco differentiators
C.    Cisco products
D.    guaranteed customer ROI

Answer: A

QUESTION 35
Which options are two benefits of understanding the customer’s business model? (Choose two.)

A.    Understanding the customer’s business model changes the way you interact with your customer.
B.    Understanding the customer’s business model provides control and assessment of project challenges.
C.    Understanding the customer’s business model helps track progress through outcomes.
D.    Understanding the customer’s business model is used to address the sales force mindset.

Answer: AC

QUESTION 36
You are working to understand a customer business environment. Which two options are preferred data gathering techniques? (Choose two.)

A.    surveys
B.    interviews
C.    asking competitors
D.    stock analysis reports
E.    social media

Answer: AB

QUESTION 37
Which statement best describes the Cisco sales approach?

A.    Understand the goals of the buyer.
B.    Focus on Cisco technologies already in place.
C.    Focus on fulfilling customer needs and help them generate value through stronger business outcomes.
D.    Pay attention to details that the customer is sharing about their needs.

Answer: C

QUESTION 38
Cisco solutions and services are related to every kind of outcomes. What approach is frequently used to achieve business outcomes?

A.    Using Next Generation IT to increase service quality. Also, reducing risk, complexity and costs
B.    Refining, enriching or developing & enabling new business processes, new markets, and customer interactions
C.    Taking advantage of new technology to increase business relevance
D.    Improving agility & ability to create or deploy high quality, differentiated, innovative services for end users

Answer: B

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QUESTION 31
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A.    24
B.    96
C.    108
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QUESTION 31
Consider the process that begins with file retrospection, continues to interrogate the file and update its disposition over time, then records the pathway that the software and files take from device to device. This process is an example of which Cisco AMP feature?

A.    file reputation
B.    attack chain weaving
C.    breach hunting
D.    file sandboxing
E.    machine learning

Answer: B

QUESTION 32
How does the Device Trajectory feature work?

A.    It searches for potential threats based on identified activities.
B.    It tracks file behavior across the network to see which devices it enters and exits.
C.    It analyzes the data from file and process retrospection to provide a new level of threat intelligence.
D.    It isolates suspicious files and runs tests to determine their authenticity.
E.    It tracks file behavior on a device to pinpoint the root cause of a compromise.

Answer: E

QUESTION 33
Which Cisco Secure Access solution should you recommend to a customer who is experiencing access complications due to too many policies and too many user groups?

A.    Cisco AnyConnect
B.    Cisco TrustSec
C.    Cisco ISE
D.    Cisco AMP for Endpoints
E.    Cisco site-to-site VPN
F.    Cisco SIO

Answer: B

QUESTION 34
Which statement best describes Cisco ISE?

A.    Cisco ISE consolidates user AAA, Security Group Access features, and ScanSafe functionality into one product.
B.    Cisco ISE consolidates user authentication with NAC components into one solution.
C.    Cisco ISE provides AAA features, guest provisioning, and device profiling features in the base feature set; link encryption policies, host posture, and security group access require the advanced feature set.
D.    Cisco ISE combines the capabilities of Cisco Secure ACS and Cisco Virtual Security Gateway into one product.

Answer: B

QUESTION 35
Which two statements about the capabilities of the Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Client for Windows are true? (Choose two.)

A.    It supports always-on connectivity by automatically establishing a VPN connection as needed. If multiple VPN gateways exist, load sharing occurs in a Round-robin fashion.
B.    It supports session persistence after hibernation or standby.
C.    Trusted Network Detection allows the connection to be established without any user intervention (authentication), if the client is located inside the office.
D.    It is exclusively configured by central policies; no local configuration is possible.
E.    The order of policy enforcement is as follows: dynamic access policy, user attributes, tunnel group, group policy attributes.

Answer: BC

QUESTION 36
Which statement about wireless intrusion prevention and rogue access point detection is true?

A.    A local mode access point provides power to wireless clients.
B.    A monitor mode access point performs background scanning in order to detect rogue access points.
C.    A monitor mode access point is dedicated to scanning (listen-only).
D.    A monitor mode access point can distribute a white list of all known access points.
E.    Any access point that broadcasts the same RF group name or is part of the same mobility group is considered to be a rogue access point.

Answer: C

QUESTION 37
Which Cisco technology solution can resolve a customer’s inability to properly restrict and authorize access to protected resources, while still introducing new applications, devices, and business partnerships?

A.    Cisco TrustSec
B.    Cisco Data Center Management Policy Implementation
C.    Cisco Data Center Virtualization and Cloud
D.    Cisco Cyber Threat Defense
E.    Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure
F.    Cisco Secure Data Center
G.    Cisco Security Intelligence Operations

Answer: A

QUESTION 38
Which two advanced malware protection features are available on Cisco AMP for Content? (Choose two.)

A.    URL filtering
B.    retrospective security
C.    attack chain weaving
D.    breach hunting
E.    trajectory
F.    behavioral indications of compromise

Answer: AB

QUESTION 39
Which option best describes granular app control using application visibility and control?

A.    blocking harmful sites based on content, such as pokerstars.com
B.    blocking World of Warcraft but allowing Google+
C.    blocking Facebook games but allowing Facebook posts
D.    blocking Twitter to increase employee productivity

Answer: C

QUESTION 40
The first phase of email security analyzes “who-what-where-when-how” information and context-based policies during which component of threat detection?

A.    antivirus defense
B.    advanced malware protection for email
C.    outbreak filters
D.    data loss prevention
E.    encryption
F.    antispam defense

Answer: F

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QUESTION 71
Cisco Finesse supports the use of custom call variable layouts. How does the agent desktop determine which layout to use?

A.    The name of the layout is passed to the agent desktop via a keyword variable that is named user layout.
B.    The layout is associated to the team under Team Resources.
C.    The layout is associated to the CSQ definition.
D.    The layout is associated to the desktop layout under Team Resources.

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QUESTION 31
Your customer wants to configure LSCs and asks for specific information about which number to configure in the text box right next to the “Number of Attempts”. Which statement is true?

A.    The default number of attempts is 100.
B.    A value of 2 means that if an AP fails to join the Cisco WLC using an LSC, the AP attempts to Join the Cisco WLC using the default certificate
C.    A value of 255 means that if an AP fails to join the Cisco WLC using an LSC,the AP does not attempt to join the Cisco WLC using the default .
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QUESTION 31
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QUESTION 31
Cisco IOS XR software is partitioned into three planes: control, data, and management. Which three of these belong to the data plane? (Choose three.)

A.    XML
B.    RIB
C.    FIB
D.    QoS
E.    PFI

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QUESTION 31
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A.    XML
B.    RIB
C.    FIB
D.    QoS
E.    PFI

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QUESTION 41
Which three of the following security controls would you take into consideration when implementing loT capabities? (Choose three.)

A.    Layered Security Appoach.
B.    Place security above functionality.
C.    Define lifecycle controls for loT devices.
D.    Privacy impact Assessment.
E.    Change passwords every 90 days.
F.    Implement Intrusion Detection Systems on loT devices.

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 42
Which EIGRP feature allows the use of leak maps?

A.    offset-list
B.    neighbor
C.    address-family
D.    stub

Answer: D

QUESTION 43
Refer to the exhibit. Which IPv6 OSPF network type is applied to interface Fa0/0 of R2 by default?

431

A.    broadcast
B.    Ethernet
C.    multipoint
D.    point-to-point

Answer: A

QUESTION 44
Which option describes the characteristics of a public Infrastructure as a Serveice cloud service model?

A.    It is a way of delivering cloud-computing infrastructure (servers, storage, network, and operating systems) as an on-demand service.
B.    It is a cloud service where the underlying hardware is managed by the cloud service provider.
C.    It is a cloud-computing platform that facilitates the creation of web applications without the need to maintain the supporting software applications.
D.    It is a cloud-computing platform that facilitates the creation of web applications without the need to maintain the supporting software operating systems.

Answer: A

QUESTION 45
Which effect of configuring the passive-interface S0/0 command under the EIGRP routing process is true?

A.    It prevents EIGRP neighbor relationships from being formed over interface S0/0.
B.    It configures interface S0/0 to send hello packets with the passive-interface bit set.
C.    It configures interface S0/0 to suppress all outgoing routing updates.
D.    It configures interface S0/0 to reject all incoming routing updates.

Answer: A

QUESTION 46
What is the default IS-IS interface metric on a Cisco router?

A.    255
B.    64
C.    10
D.    128

Answer: C

QUESTION 47
Which two items must be defined to capture packet data with the Embedded Packet Capture feature? (Choose two.)

A.    the capture rate
B.    the capture point
C.    the capture buffer
D.    the buffer memory size
E.    the capture filter
F.    the capture file export location

Answer: BC

QUESTION 48
When you configure an IPv6 IPsec tunnel, which two fields can represent the ISAKMP identity of a peer? (Choose two)

A.    Authentication method
B.    DH group identifier
C.    Hostname
D.    IPv6 address
E.    Encryption algorithm

Answer: CD

QUESTION 49
Which action enables passive interfaces in RIPv6(RIPng)?

A.    Use “passive-interface default” under the routing process.
B.    Enable passive-interface on interface configuration.
C.    passive interface are not supported in RIPng.
D.    Enable passive-interface for each interface under the routing process.

Answer: C

QUESTION 50
Which statement is true about IGMP?

A.    Multicast sources send IGMP messages to their first-hop router, which then generates a PIM join message that is then sent to the RP.
B.    Multicast receivers send IGMP messages to their first-hop router, which then forwards the IGMP messages to the RP.
C.    IGMP messages are encapsulated in PIM register messages and sent to the RP.
D.    Multicast receivers send IGMP messages to signal their interest to receive traffic for specific multicast groups.

Answer: D

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QUESTION 41
Which two statements are requirements regarding hunt group options for B-ACD implementation on Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express routers? (Choose two.)

A.    The ephone hunt group is mandatory.
B.    Either the ephone hunt group or the voice hunt group is acceptable.
C.    Hunt group members must be SCCP IP phones.
D.    Hunt group members can include both SCCP or SIP IP phones.
E.    Hunt group members must be SIP IP phones.
F.    The member hunting mechanism must be set to sequential.

Answer: AC
Explanation:
The ephone hunt group is mandatory, and while ephone hunt groups only support Cisco Unified SCCP IP phones, a voice hunt group supports either a Cisco Unified SCCP IP phone or a Cisco Unified SIP IP phone
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/command/reference/cme_v1ht.html

QUESTION 42
Which call hunt mechanism is only supported by the voice hunt group in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router?

A.    sequential
B.    peer
C.    longest idle
D.    parallel
E.    overlay

Answer: D
Explanation:
Parallel Hunt-Group, allows a user to dial a pilot number that rings 2-10 different extensions simultaneously. The first extension to answer gets connected to the caller while all other extensions will stop ringing. A timeout value can be set whereas if none of the extensions answer before the timer expires, all the extensions will stop ringing and one final destination number will ring indefinitely instead. The final number could be another voice hunt-group pilot number or mailbox The following features are supported for Voice Hunt-Group:
Calls can be forwarded to Voice Hunt-Group
Calls can be transferred to Voice Hunt-Group
Member of Voice Hunt-Group can be SCCP, ds0-group, pri-group, FXS or SIP phone/trunk
Max member of Voice Hunt-Group will be 32

QUESTION 43
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express ephone button configuration separator enables overflow lines when the primary line for an overlay button is occupied by an active call?

A.    o
B.    c
C.    w
D.    x
E.    :

Answer: D
Explanation:
x expansion/overflow, define additional expansion lines that are used when the primary line for an overlay button is occupied by an active call.

QUESTION 44
Which two statements describe characteristics of Cisco Unified Border Element high availability, prior to Cisco IOS release 15.2.3T, using a box-to-box redundancy configuration? (Choose two.)

A.    It leverages HSRP for router redundancy and GLBP for load sharing between a pair of routers.
B.    Cisco Unified Border Element session information is check-pointed across the active and standby router pair.
C.    It supports media and signal preservation when a switchover occurs.
D.    Only media streams are preserved when a switchover occurs.
E.    It can leverage either HSRP or VRRP for router redundancy.
F.    The SIP media signal must be bound to the loopback interface.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 45
Refer to the exhibit. From this NFAS-enabled T1 PRI configuration on a Cisco IOS router, how many bearer channels are available to carry voice traffic?

451

A.    91
B.    92
C.    93
D.    94
E.    95

Answer: D
Explanation:
In NFAS one channel is used for signaling so according to this we will have 94 channel for with bearer capability.

QUESTION 46
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming this NFAS-enabled T1 PRI configuration on a Cisco IOS router is fully functional, what will the controller T1 1/1 D-channel status be in the output of the show isdn status command?

461

A.    MULTIPLE_FRAME_ESTABLISHED
B.    TEI_ASSIGNED
C.    AWAITING_ESTABLISHMENT
D.    STANDBY
E.    INITIALIZED

Answer: B
Explanation:
TEI_ASSIGNED, which indicates that the PRI does not exchange Layer 2 frames with the switch. Use the show controller t1 x command to first check the controller t1 circuit, and verify whether it is clean (that is, it has no errors) before you troubleshoot ISDN Layer 2 problem with the debug isdn q921.

QUESTION 47
Refer to the exhibit. In an effort to troubleshoot a caller ID delivery problem, a customer emailed you the voice port configuration on a Cisco IOS router. Which type of voice port is it?

471

A.    FXS
B.    E&M
C.    BRI
D.    FXO
E.    DID

Answer: D

QUESTION 48
The iLBC codec operates at 38 bytes per sample per 20-millisecond interval. What is its codec bit rate in kilobits per second?

A.    6.3
B.    13.3
C.    15.2
D.    16
E.    24

Answer: C
Explanation:
The internet Low Bit Rate Codec (iLBC) is designed for narrow band speech and results in a payload bit rate of 13.33 kbits per second for 30-millisecond (ms) frames and 15.20 kbits per second for 20 ms frames. When the codec operates at block lengths of 20 ms, it produces 304 bits per block, which is packetized as defined in RFC 3952. Similarly, for block lengths of 30 ms it produces 400 bits per block, which is packetized as defined in RFC 3952.The iLBC has built-in error correction functionality to provide better performance in networks with higher packet loss

QUESTION 49
Assume 6 bytes for the Layer 2 header, 1 byte for the end-of-frame flag, and a 40-millisecond voice payload, how much bandwidth should be allocated to the strict priority queue for five VoIP calls that use a G.729 codec over a multilink PPP link?

A.    87 kb/s
B.    134 kb/s
C.    102.6 kb/s
D.    77.6 kb/s
E.    71.3 kb/s

Answer: A
Explanation:
Voice payloads are encapsulated by RTP, then by UDP, then by IP. A Layer 2 header of the correct format is applied; the type obviously depends on the link technology in use by each router interface: A single voice call generates two one-way RTP/UDP/IP packet streams. UDP provides multiplexing and checksum capability; RTP provides payload identification, timestamps, and sequence numbering.

QUESTION 50
Assume 20 bytes of voice payload, 6 bytes for the Layer 2 header, 1 byte for the end-of-frame flag, and the IP, UDP, and RTP headers are compressed to 2 bytes, how much bandwidth should be allocated to the strict priority queue for six VoIP calls that use a G.729 codec over a multilink PPP link with cRTP enabled?

A.    80.4 kb/s
B.    91.2 kb/s
C.    78.4 kb/s
D.    69.6 kb/s
E.    62.4 kb/s

Answer: D
Explanation:
Voice payloads are encapsulated by RTP, then by UDP, then by IP. A Layer 2 header of the correct format is applied; the type obviously depends on the link technology in use by each router interface: A single voice call generates two one-way RTP/UDP/IP packet streams. UDP provides multiplexing and checksum capability; RTP provides payload identification, timestamps, and sequence numbering.

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QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit. Your junior design engineer presents this configuration design. What is the next-hop router for CE3, and why?

311

A.    CE1. BGP weight is higher than CE2.
B.    CE2. EBGP administrative distance is lower than RIP.
C.    CE2. The link between CE2 and PE1 has more bandwidth than CE1-to-PE1.
D.    CE1. HSRP on CE1 is in active state.

Answer: A

QUESTION 32
A service provider creates a network design that runs MPLS in its WAN backbone using OSPF as the IGP routing protocol. What would be two effects of additionally implementing MPLS-TE? (Choose two.)

A.    MPLS-TE is required to reroute traffic within less than 1 second in case of a link failure inside the
backbone.
B.    MPLS-TE is required to route different MPLS QoS service classes through different paths.
C.    MPLS-TE and OSPF cannot be used together inside one MPLS network.
D.    MPLS-TE cannot use OSPF for the traffic path calculation.
E.    MPLS-TE is required to create backup paths independently from the IGP.

Answer: BE

QUESTION 33
Which two mechanisms ensure that a network design provides fast path failure detection? (Choose two.)

A.    BFD
B.    fast hello packets
C.    UDLD
D.    IP Cisco Express Forwarding

Answer: AB

QUESTION 34
In which two ways is a network design improved by the inclusion of IP Event Dampening? (Choose two.)

A.    reduces processing load
B.    provides sub-second convergence
C.    improves network stability
D.    prevents routing loops
E.    quickly detects network failures

Answer: AC

QUESTION 35
You are evaluating convergence characteristics of various interior gateway protocols for a new network design. Which technology allows link-state routing protocols to calculate paths to destination prefixes that are functionally similar to feasible successors in Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol?

A.    Incremental Shortest Path First
B.    Cisco Multiprotocol Label Switching Traffic Engineering Fast Reroute
C.    Loop-Free Alternate Fast Reroute
D.    partial route calculation
E.    Fast-Flooding

Answer: C

QUESTION 36
You are hired to design a solution that will improve network availability for users on a campus network with routed access. If the budget limits you to three components, which three components would you recommend in your design proposal? (Choose three.)

A.    redundant power supplies in the access routers
B.    standby route processors for SSO in the core routers
C.    standby route processors for SSO in the distribution routers
D.    standby route processors for SSO in the access routers
E.    replace copper links between devices with fiber links

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 37
You are designing a network to support data, voice and video. Which two main factors will you address to improve network convergence? (Choose two.)

A.    event propagation delay
B.    failure detection delay
C.    forwarding engine update delay
D.    routing table recalculation delay

Answer: BD

QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibit. This diagram depicts the design of a small network that will run EIGRP on R1 and R2, and EIGRP Stub on R3. In which two ways will this network be impacted if there is link instability between R1 and R2? (Choose two.)

381

A.    R1 will have routes in its routing table that originate from R2 and R3.
B.    R3 will have routes in its routing table that originate from R1 and R2.
C.    R2 will have routes in its routing table that originate from R1 and R3.
D.    R3 will be transit for traffic between R1 and R2.
E.    R3 will not be transit for traffic between R1 and R2.

Answer: BE

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QUESTION 31
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QUESTION 51
Which IPS signature regular expression CLI command matches a host issuing a domain lookup for www.theblock.com?

A.    regex-string (\x03[Tt][Hh][Ee]\x05[Bb][Ll][Oo][Cc][Kk])
B.    regex-string (\x0b[theblock.com])
C.    regex-string (\x03[the]\x05[block]0x3[com])
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QUESTION 31
A Cisco IOS SSL VPN gateway is configured to operate in clientless mode so that users can access file shares on a Microsoft Windows 2003 server. Which protocol is used between the Cisco IOS router and the Windows server?

A.    HTTPS
B.    NetBIOS
C.    CIFS
D.    HTTP

Answer: C

QUESTION 32
You are configuring a Cisco IOS SSL VPN gateway to operate with DVTI support. Which command must you configure on the virtual template?

A.    tunnel protection ipsec
B.    ip virtual-reassembly
C.    tunnel mode ipsec
D.    ip unnumbered

Answer: D

QUESTION 33
Which protocol supports high availability in a Cisco IOS SSL VPN environment?

A.    HSRP
B.    VRRP
C.    GLBP
D.    IRDP

Answer: A

QUESTION 34
When you configure IPsec VPN High Availability Enhancements, which technology does Cisco recommend that you enable to make reconvergence faster?

A.    EOT
B.    IP SLAs
C.    periodic IKE keepalives
D.    VPN fast detection

Answer: C

QUESTION 35
Which hash algorithm is required to protect classified information?

A.    MD5
B.    SHA-1
C.    SHA-256
D.    SHA-384

Answer: D

QUESTION 36
Which cryptographic algorithms are approved to protect Top Secret information?

A.    HIPPA DES
B.    AES-128
C.    RC4-128
D.    AES-256

Answer: D

QUESTION 37
Which Cisco firewall platform supports Cisco NGE?

A.    FWSM
B.    Cisco ASA 5505
C.    Cisco ASA 5580
D.    Cisco ASA 5525-X

Answer: D

QUESTION 38
Which algorithm is replaced by elliptic curve cryptography in Cisco NGE?

A.    3DES
B.    AES
C.    DES
D.    RSA

Answer: D

QUESTION 39
Which encryption and authentication algorithms does Cisco recommend when deploying a Cisco NGE supported VPN solution?

A.    AES-GCM and SHA-2
B.    3DES and DH
C.    AES-CBC and SHA-1
D.    3DES and SHA-1

Answer: A

QUESTION 40
An administrator wishes to limit the networks reachable over the Anyconnect VPN tunnels. Which configuration on the ASA will correctly limit the networks reachable to 209.165.201.0/27 and 209.165.202.128/27?

A.    access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224
access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224 !
group-policy GroupPolicy1 internal
group-policy GroupPolicy1 attributes
split-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified
split-tunnel-network-list value splitlist
B.    access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224
access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224 !
group-policy GroupPolicy1 internal
group-policy GroupPolicy1 attributes
split-tunnel-policy tunnelall
split-tunnel-network-list value splitlist
C.    group-policy GroupPolicy1 internal
group-policy GroupPolicy1 attributes
split-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified
split-tunnel-network-list ipv4 1 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224
split-tunnel-network-list ipv4 2 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224
D.    access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224
access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224 !
crypto anyconnect vpn-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified
crypto anyconnect vpn-tunnel-network-list splitlist
E.    crypto anyconnect vpn-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified
crypto anyconnect split-tunnel-network-list ipv4 1 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224
crypto anyconnect split-tunnel-network-list ipv4 2 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224

Answer: A

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QUESTION 31
Which three components comprise the Cisco ISE profiler? (Choose three.)

A.    the sensor, which contains one or more probes
B.    the probe manager
C.    a monitoring tool that connects to the Cisco ISE
D.    the trigger, which activates ACLs
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QUESTION 31
Where in the Cisco ASA appliance CLI are Active/Active Failover configuration parameters configured?

A.    admin context
B.    customer context
C.    system execution space
D.    within the system execution space and admin context
E.    within each customer context and admin context

Answer: C

QUESTION 32
Which Cisco ASA object group type offers the most flexibility for grouping different services together based on arbitrary protocols?

A.    network
B.    ICMP
C.    protocol
D.    TCP-UDP
E.    service

Answer: E

QUESTION 33
Which Cisco ASA show command groups the xlates and connections information together in its output?

A.    show conn
B.    show conn detail
C.    show xlate
D.    show asp
E.    show local-host

Answer: E

QUESTION 34
When a Cisco ASA is configured in multiple context mode, within which configuration are the interfaces allocated to the security contexts?

A.    each security context
B.    system configuration
C.    admin context (context with the “admin” role)
D.    context startup configuration file (.cfg file)

Answer: B

QUESTION 35
When troubleshooting redundant interface operations on the Cisco ASA, which configuration should be verified?

A.    The nameif configuration on the member physical interfaces are identical.
B.    The MAC address configuration on the member physical interfaces are identical.
C.    The active interface is sending periodic hellos to the standby interface.
D.    The IP address configuration on the logical redundant interface is correct.
E.    The duplex and speed configuration on the logical redundant interface are correct.

Answer: D

QUESTION 36
On the Cisco ASA, where are the Layer 5-7 policy maps applied?

A.    inside the Layer 3-4 policy map
B.    inside the Layer 3-4 class map
C.    inside the Layer 5-7 class map
D.    inside the Layer 3-4 service policy
E.    inside the Layer 5-7 service policy

Answer: A

QUESTION 37
A Cisco ASA requires an additional feature license to enable which feature?

A.    transparent firewall
B.    cut-thru proxy
C.    threat detection
D.    botnet traffic filtering
E.    TCP normalizer

Answer: D

QUESTION 38
Which four are IPv6 First Hop Security technologies? (Choose four.)

A.    Send
B.    Dynamic ARP Inspection
C.    Router Advertisement Guard
D.    Neighbor Discovery Inspection
E.    Traffic Storm Control
F.    Port Security
G.    DHCPv6 Guard

Answer: ACDG

QUESTION 39
IPv6 addresses in an organization’s network are assigned using Stateless Address
Autoconfiguration. What is a security concern of using SLAAC for IPv6 address assignment?

A.    Man-In-The-Middle attacks or traffic interception using spoofed IPv6 Router Advertisements
B.    Smurf or amplification attacks using spoofed IPv6 ICMP Neighbor Solicitations
C.    Denial of service attacks using TCP SYN floods
D.    Denial of Service attacks using spoofed IPv6 Router Solicitations

Answer: A

QUESTION 40
Which two parameters must be configured before you enable SCP on a router? (Choose two.)

A.    SSH
B.    authorization
C.    ACLs
D.    NTP
E.    TACACS+

Answer: AB

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QUESTION 81
For a KVM session to be successful, which two of these need to be done? (Choose two.)

A.    The Cisco IMC IP address needs to be assigned on the Admin tab.
B.    The Cisco IMC IP address needs to be in the same subnet as the management IP.
C.    The Cisco IMC needs to be upgraded to the same version as the UCS Manager.
D.    The server needs to be fully discovered.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 82
A customer is configuring SAN pin groups in a Cisco UCS domain.
The customer notices that pinning is not working and traffic from the vHBA is not passing over the Fibre Channel uplink port. Which of these must be done for pinning to work correctly?

A.    Include the SAN pin group in a vHBA policy and then include the vHBA policy in the service profile
that is assigned to that server.
B.    Include the SAN policy in the Cisco UCS Manager to match with pin groups on the fabric interconnect.
C.    The customer must have Cisco UCS Manager version 2.0 or above.
D.    Fibre Channel switch mode needs to be configured first.

Answer: A

QUESTION 83
Refer to exhibit. A Cisco UCS admin is troubleshooting an issue with a vNIC not coming up on a blade. When looking at the CLI of the “Fabric Interconnect”,the admin runs this command to view the status of the interface.
Which option describes a possible reason why the interface is stuck in an “initializing” state?

831

A.    The service profile is not applied to a blade.
B.    The VLANs defined on the vNIC are not defined on a matching uplink port.
C.    The uplink port is down.
D.    The QoS policy on the vNIC is invalid.
E.    The MTU on the vNIC is higher than the MTU configured in the QoS system class.

Answer: C

QUESTION 84
Which two options are causes for failure of a Cisco C-Series server that is configured to boot from SAN? (Choose two.)

A.    The boot LUN ID is not 0.
B.    The ISCSI target is only available via one via one path through the network.
C.    C-Series does not support boot from SAN.
D.    The KVM dongle is attached to the front of the server with a USB stick installed.
E.    Under the FCoE properties on the vNIC adapter, the FCoE VLAN ID is set to 10.
F.    The boot table for fc0 has not been configured.

Answer: DF

QUESTION 85
Which command on the Fabric Interconnect displays packet statistics for a given QoS group and MTU size?

A.    show policy-map interface ethernet x/y
B.    show queuing interface ethernet x/y
C.    show interface ethernet x/y
D.    show class-map type qos
E.    show interface queuing ethernet x/y

Answer: B

QUESTION 86
A Cisco UCS admin is trying to integrate Cisco UCS Manager with Active Directory Authentication. After the configuration is done, the admin is still unable to log in using LDAP credentials. When running a debug on the Fabric Interconnect, this error is displayed:

ldap_build_roles_and_locales_from_attr: No attr for usr profile

Which step was missed in the configuration?

A.    The LDAP provider was not configured correctly.
B.    The proper RBAC role(s) were not assigned to the user.
C.    Cisco UCS Manager 2.1 is required for LDAP integration.
D.    The “Attribute” field in Cisco UCS was left blank.

Answer: B

QUESTION 87
Which three requirements are needed to configure a blade to boot successfully from Fibre Channel? (Choose three.)

A.    zoning
B.    LUN masking
C.    WWPN device alias
D.    boot from SAN policy
E.    SAN connectivity policy
F.    port assignment
G.    target WWPN needs to be set in the boot from SAN policy

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 88
Which description of a core file is true?

A.    It is generated by a system failure.
B.    It is generated by a process failure.
C.    It is generated by a component failure.
D.    It is generated by a hardware failure.

Answer: B

QUESTION 89
Which logs are used to troubleshoot hardware failure?

A.    system event log
B.    audit log
C.    accounting log
D.    gateway logs
E.    system log

Answer: A

QUESTION 90
A UCS Admin is trying to launch the KVM console but it is failing to launch. All IP Pools for mgmt are configured and the CIMC has an address in UCSM. They SSH to the fabric Interconnect and run an ethanalyzer while issuing a ping from their local PC to the KVM IP address. The ping is successful but they do not see the ICMP requests and replies displayed in the capture. Here is the filter they used:

FIA(nxos)# ethanalyzer local interface mgmt display-filter icmp limit-captured-frames 0

What could be the reason pings are not seen in the capture and the KVM is failing to load?

A.    Java settings are preventing the KVM from loading
B.    There is a duplicate IP address for that CIMC address
C.    The switch upstream from the FI has the wrong vlan configured
D.    The CIMC IP pool is in the same subnet as the Fabric Interconnects mgmt 0 interface

Answer: B

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QUESTION 31
How many links are there between a second-generation IOM (Cisco UCS 2204 or 2208) and a third- generation half-width blade (Cisco UCS B200 M3 or B22 M3) in a Cisco UCS system?

A.    1
B.    2
C.    4
D.    8

Answer: C

QUESTION 32
Which policy would you change to form a port channel between a Cisco UCS 6248 and a Cisco UCS 2208?

A.    link aggregation policy
B.    chassis discovery policy
C.    IOM connection policy
D.    link discovery policy

Answer: B

QUESTION 33
The Cisco UCS 6200 Series Fabric Interconnects offer a new feature that allows dynamic port allocation for all of the 10 Gigabit Ethernet interfaces. What are these ports called?

A.    universal ports
B.    flex ports
C.    unified ports
D.    converged ports

Answer: C

QUESTION 34
In which situation would you be required to change a Cisco UCS system from end-host mode to switching mode?

A.    Design requirements call for the use of fabric failover.
B.    Fabric interconnect is connecting to disjoint Layer 2 networks upstream.
C.    HSRP routers are directly connected to the fabric interconnect.
D.    Upstream Cisco Nexus 5000 is configured for vPC.

Answer: C

QUESTION 35
Drag and Drop Question
Drag the characteristic on the left to the appropriate Cisco UCS adapter on the right, where the adapter supports that characterishtic.

351

Answer:

352

QUESTION 36
Drag and Drop Question
The Cisco Integrated Management Controller on a Cisco Unified Computing B-Series server provides a number of features. Drag the functionality on the left to the appropriate feature on the right.

361

Answer:

362

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