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QUESTION 21
Which deployment model is the best solution for a simple installation with the most secure connection outside the production network forCisco Meeting Server?

A.    Scaled and Resilient Server Deployment
B.    Single Split Server Deployment
C.    Single Combined Server Deployment
D.    Scaled and Combined Server Deployment

Answer: C

QUESTION 22
How is TIP defined?

A.    TIP multiplexes RTP ports to reduce the number of video streams required in calls between any H.323 and SIP endpoint. Whether they are immersive endpoints or non- immersive endpoints.
B.    TIP allows communication between any immersive and non-immersive endpoint.
C.    TIP allows communication between any endpoint, regardless of what protocol is used
D.    TIP multiplexes RTP ports to reduce the number of video streams required in cars between immersive endpoints.

Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which statement is true regarding TMS permissions?

A.    TMS Permissions are assigned to groups, and users are added to the groups.
B.    TMS Permissions are directly assigned to individual users.
C.    TMS Permissions are configured in Active Directory, which is then synched to TMS.
D.    TMS Permissions can be imported from the Expressway or CUCM.

Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which statement is true about APIs and SDKs?

A.    SDKs specify how software components should interact
B.    APIs consist of a set of SDKs, sample code, technical notes, and debugging facilities.
C.    SDKs can be used without APIs.
D.    APIs can be used without SDKs.

Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which type of API is used to configure settings on Cisco Meeting Server?

A.    REST
B.    XML-RPC
C.    SOAP
D.    XMP-RPC

Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which is a protocol used in the H.323 standard?

A.    802.1
B.    SIP
C.    Q.931
D.    SDP

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/voice/H-323/configuration/15-mt/voi-h323-overview.html#GUID-8130E479-580A-4450-91EA-A1CDCE96548A

QUESTION 27
What is a function of a call control solution?

A.    To make, monitor and maintain calls
B.    To provide an audio and video interface for the user
C.    To join 3 or more participants in a meeting.
D.    To schedule calls

Answer: A

QUESTION 28
What do Enterprise Settingson Cisco Spark determine?

A.    Where user information comes from.
B.    BOT integration
C.    API integration
D.    How Connectors are integrated in a hybrid deployment.

Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which management solution works with endpointsregistered to UCM, VCS and Expressway?

A.    Prime
B.    CMA
C.    CMR
D.    TMS

Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which premise-based conferencing solution supports Skype for Business and WebRTC?

A.    TelePresence Server
B.    Spark
C.    Cisco Meeting Server
D.    Cisco WebEx

Answer: B

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QUESTION 21
Which two attacks target the data link layer in a switched environment? (Choose two.)

A.    VLAN attacks
B.    IP source routing
C.    MAC address floods
D.    DHCP-based IP redirection attacks
E.    Spanning-tree attacks

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QUESTION 61
Which three of the following tasks can be performed using Cisco Unified Real-Time Monitoring Tool? (Choose three.)

A.    collect trace files
B.    stop and start Cisco Unified CCX services
C.    view syslog messages
D.    perform backup and restore functions
E.    monitor the health of the Cisco Unified CCX system

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QUESTION 21
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QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit which two statement about the given IPV6 ZBF configuration are true? (Choose two)

211

A.    It provides backward compability with legacy IPv6 inspection
B.    It inspect TCP, UDP,ICMP and FTP traffic from Z1 to Z2.
C.    It inspect TCP, UDP,ICMP and FTP traffic from Z2 to Z1.
D.    It inspect TCP,UDP,ICMP and FTP traffic in both direction between z1 and z2.
E.    It passes TCP, UDP,ICMP and FTP traffic from z1 to z2.
F.    It provide backward compatibility with legacy IPv4 inseption.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 22
In which class of applications security threads does HTTP header manipulation reside?

A.    Session management
B.    Parameter manipulation
C.    Software tampering
D.    Exception managements

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.cgisecurity.com/owasp/html/ch11s04.html
Session management doesn’t have anything to do with HTTP header

QUESTION 23
What is the most commonly used technology to establish an encrypted HTTP connection?

A.    the HTTP/1.1 Upgrade header
B.    the HTTP/1.0 Upgrade header
C.    Secure Hypertext Transfer Protocol
D.    HTTPS

Answer: D

QUESTION 24
What functionality is provided by DNSSEC?

A.    origin authentication of DNS data
B.    data confidentiality of DNS queries and answers
C.    access restriction of DNS zone transfers
D.    storage of the certificate records in a DNS zone file

Answer: A

QUESTION 25
What are the two mechanism that are used to authenticate OSPFv3 packets?(Choose two)

A.    MD5
B.    ESP
C.    PLAIN TEXT
D.    AH
E.    SHA

Answer: BD

QUESTION 26
You have been asked to configure a Cisco ASA appliance in multiple mode with these settings:

(A) You need two customer contexts, named contextA and contextB
(B) Allocate interfaces G0/0 and G0/1 to contextA
(C) Allocate interfaces G0/0 and G0/2 to contextB
(D) The physical interface name for G0/1 within contextA should be “inside”.
(E) All other context interfaces must be viewable via their physical interface names.

If the admin context is already defined and all interfaces are enabled, which command set will complete this configuration?

A.    context contextA
config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
context contextB
config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2 visible
B.    context contexta
config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
context contextb
config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2 visible
C.    context contextA
config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 invisible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
context contextB
config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 invisible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2 invisible
D.    context contextA
config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
context contextB
config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2
E.    context contextA
config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
context contextB
config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 visible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2 visible

Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which statement about the cisco anyconnect web security module is true ?

A.    It is VPN client software that works over the SSl protocol.
B.    It is an endpoint component that is used with smart tunnel in a clientless SSL VPN.
C.    It operates as an NAC agent when it is configured with the Anyconnect VPN client.
D.    It is deployed on endpoints to route HTTP traffic to SCANsafe

Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which two statements about the SeND protocol are true? (Choose two)

A.    It uses IPsec as a baseline mechanism
B.    It supports an autoconfiguration mechanism
C.    It must be enabled before you can configure IPv6 addresses
D.    It supports numerous custom neighbor discovery messages
E.    It counters neighbor discovery threats
F.    It logs IPv6-related threats to an external log server

Answer: BE

Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ips/6-1/configuration/guide/cli/cliguide/cli_signature_engines.html#wp1141808

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QUESTION 21
What IOS commands display MPLS label mapping on an LSR?

A.    Show mpls ldp parameters
B.    Show mpls ldp bindings
C.    Show mpls forwading-table
D.    Show mpls ldp discovery
E.    Show mpls ldp neighbor detail

Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Drag and Drop Questions

221

Answer:

222

QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit. The vrf MAINT has been provisioned and used by the Service Provider management network. The engineer discovers that syslog messages are not being received on the syslog server. IP reachability has been validated using ping.
Which issue in the configuration must be corrected?

231

A.    logging on must include the vrf MAINT keyword.
B.    logging host must include the vrf MAINT keyword.
C.    The logging facility must be configured for syslog processing.
D.    The route targets that are configured do not match the route distinguisher.

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2sr/12_2sra/feature/guide/srvrfslg.html#wp1059076

QUESTION 24
Which are the three header fields that affect how Equal-Cost Multipath hashes traffic flow into interface groups? (Choose three.)

A.    source MAC address
B.    source port
C.    source IP address
D.    destination IP address
E.    IP protocol ID
F.    destination MAC address

Answer: BCD

QUESTION 25
An R1 router requires an equal load balancing to reach the prefix 192.168.0.0/16 over two exit points: through R2 and R3 routers. Which two options must be configured on the R1 router to achieve this goal? (Choose two.)

A.    The BGP maximum path feature must be configured on R1.
B.    The BGP PIC core must be enabled on R1
C.    Weight, local-pref, MED, as-path length, origin, and the BGP next-hop IGP cost must be the same for the R2 and R3 IBGP updates to R1.
D.    The BGP Link Bandwidth feature must be applied on R1.
E.    BGP extended community exchange must be enabled between IBGP neighbors.

Answer: AC
Explanation:
BGP link-bandwidth is for unequal-cost routes.

QUESTION 26
A company is deciding between an HVR and SVR solution in order to finalize a virtualization project proposal. Which is an advantage of a HVR solution versus a SVR solution?

A.    A HVR solution implements dedicated data plane resources.
B.    A HVR solution implements shared control plane resources.
C.    A HVR solution introduces significant contention of resources.
D.    A HVR solution implements dedicated chassis resources.

Answer: A
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/solutions/collateral/ns341/ns524/ns562/ns573/white_paper_c11-512753_ns573_Networking_Solutions_White_Paper.html

QUESTION 27
Which three of these are optical channel data unit (ODU) overhead fields? (Choose three)

A.    general communication channel 0 (GCC0)
B.    section monitoring
C.    reserved (RES)
D.    general communication channels 1 and 2 (GCC1 GCC2)
E.    tandem connection monitoring activation deactivation (TCM ACT)

Answer: CDE

QUESTION 28
Which three modes are the operating of HDLC? (Choose three)

A.    asynchronous balanced mode (ABM)
B.    normal response mode (NRM)
C.    normal peer mode (NPM)
D.    asynchronous client mode (ACM)
E.    asynchronous response mode (ARM)

Answer: ABE
Explanation:
Asynchronous response mode is an HDLC addition[1] for use over full-duplex links. While retaining the primary/secondary distinction, it allows the secondary to transmit at any time. Asynchronous balanced mode added the concept of a combined terminal which can act as both a primary and a secondary. There are some subtleties about this mode of operation; while many features of the protocol do not care whether they are in a command or response frame, some do, and the address field of a received frame must be examined to determine whether it contains a command (the address received is ours) or a response (the address received is that of the other terminal).

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QUESTION 21
Which OpenStack component implements role-based access control?

A.    Horizon
B.    Nova
C.    Neutron
D.    Keystone

Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit. R2 is configured as the R1 neighbor in area 51, but R2 fails to receive the configured summary route.
Which action can you take to correct the problem?

221

A.    Replace the summary-address command with the area-range command.
B.    Configure a summary address under R1interface GigabitEthernet0/0.
C.    Configure a summary address under R1 interface GigabitEthernet1/0.
D.    Configure the no discard-route command in the OSPF process of R1.
E.    Configure ip ospf network broadcast under the Loopback0 interface of R1.

Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which two conditions must be met before IS-IS Level 1 routers will become adjacent?(Choose two.)

A.    The routers must share a common Autonomous System Number.
B.    The router must share a common process ID.
C.    The router must be in different areas.
D.    The routers must share a common network segment.
E.    The routers must be configured with the neighbor command.
F.    The routers must be in the same area.

Answer: DF

QUESTION 24
Which two statements are true about control plane policing? (Choose two.)

A.    Control plane policing will affect only traffic that is destined to the route processor.
B.    Access lists that are used in policies for control plane policing must not use the log keyword.
C.    Access lists that use the deny rule in control plane policing do not progress to the next class.
D.    The log keyword can be used but the log-input keyword must not be used in policing.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 25
Which three pieces of information are carried on OSPF type 3 LSAs? (Choose three)

A.    metric
B.    authentication type
C.    link state
D.    IP subnet
E.    external route tag
F.    subnet mask

Answer: ACF

QUESTION 26
Your NetFlow collector is not working due to a large amount of traffic entering your network which is destined to a single IP address.
Which NetFlow feature allows you to collect the top source hosts for this traffic on the local router?

A.    NetFlow can export flows only to a extermal flow collector
B.    show ip cache flow
C.    ip accounting
D.    ip flow-top-talkers

Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit. R1, R2 and R3 are in different satelite offices of the same prganization.
A multicast video source is located behind R1.R3 frequently receives video streams intend for R2.
These streams saturate the available bandwidth of R3.
Which configuration change can alleviate the congestion on R3?

271

A.    Configure R3 to send an immediate-leave message when necessary to stop receiving unwanted traffic.
B.    Configure IGMP snooping on R1, R2, and R3.
C.    Place a PIM filter on the switches and interfaces that connect to R1, R2, and R3.
D.    Enable IGMP snooping on all switches that connect to R1, R2, and R3.
E.    Place a PIM filter on the switch and interface that connect to R1 only.

Answer: D

QUESTION 28
With which protocol is CoAP designed to be used?

A.    TCP
B.    SNMP
C.    UDP
D.    XMPP

Answer: C

QUESTION 29
Which two solutions can reduce UDP latency? (Choose two.)

A.    fast retransmission
B.    fast recovery
C.    low-latency queuing
D.    IP service level agreements
E.    congestion-avoidance algorithm

Answer: CD
Explanation:
In the actual exam, if becomes single choice question just choose C.

QUESTION 30
Which three statements describe the characteristics of a VPLS architecture? (Choose three.)

A.    It forwards Ethernet frames.
B.    It maps MAC address destinations to IP next hops
C.    It supports MAC address aging.
D.    It replicates broadcast and multicast frames to multiple ports.
E.    It conveys MAC address reachability information in a separate control protocol.
F.    It can suppress the flooding of traffic.

Answer: ACD

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QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit. A user is going through a series of dialing steps on a SIP Type B IP phone (for example, a Cisco 7975) to call an SCCP IP phone. Both phones are registered to the same Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster. Assuming the calling SIP phone is associated with a SIP Dial Rule with a pattern value of 2001, which statement about the call setup process of this call is true?

211

A.    Each digit will arrive at Cisco Unified Communications Manager in a SIP NOTIFY message as a KPML
event, and Cisco Unified Communications Manager will extend the call as soon as the collected digits
match the extension of the SCCP IP phone, bypassing class of service configuration on both IP phones.
B.    Each digit will arrive at Cisco Unified Communications Manager in a SIP NOTIFY message as a KPML
event. When the collected digits match the extension of the SCCP IP phone, Cisco Unified Communications
Manager
will extend the call only if the class of service configuration on both phones permits this action.
C.    As soon as the user selects the Dial softkey, the SIP IP phone will forward all digits to Cisco Unified
Communications Manager in a SIP INVITE message. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will extend
the call as soon as the collected digits match the extension of the SCCP IP phone, bypassing class of service
configuration on both IP phones.
D.    As soon as the user selects the Dial softkey, the SIP IP phone will forward all digits to Cisco Unified
Communications Manager in a SIP INVITE message. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will extend
the call only if class of service configuration on both phones permits this action.
E.    The SIP IP phone will wait for the interdigit timer to expire, and then send all digits to Cisco Unified
Communications Manager in a SIP INVITE message. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will extend
the call as soon as the collected digits match the extension of the SCCP IP phone, bypassing class of
service configuration on both IP phones.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Cisco Type B SIP Phones offer functionality based SIP INVITE Message. Every key the end user presses triggers an individual SIP message. The first event is communicated with a SIP INVITE, but subsequent messages use SIP NOTIFY messages. The SIP NOTIFY messages send KPML events corresponding to any buttons or soft keys pressed by the user. Cisco Type B SIP IP Phones with SIP dial rules operate in the same manner as Cisco Type A phones with dial rules.

QUESTION 22
What does a comma accomplish when it is used in a SIP Dial Rule pattern that is associated with a Cisco 9971 IP Phone that is registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

A.    It inserts a 500-millisecond pause between digits.
B.    It causes the phone to generate a secondary dial tone.
C.    It is a delimiter and has no significant dialing impact.
D.    It indicates a timeout value of 5000 milliseconds.
E.    It is an obsolete parameter and will be ignored.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Comma is accepted in speed dial as delimiter and pause. -Comma used to delineate dial string, FAC, CMC, and post connect digits For post connect digits, commas insert a 2 second delay Commas may be duplicated to create longer delays

QUESTION 23
Which Call Admission Control mechanism is supported for the Cisco Extension Mobility Cross Cluster solution?

A.    Location CAC
B.    RSVP CAC
C.    H.323 gatekeeper
D.    intercluster Enhanced Location CAC
E.    visiting cluster’s LBM hub

Answer: B
Explanation:
Configuring extension mobility cross cluster (EMCC) is nothing you should take lightly. EMCC requires a lot of configuration parameters including the exporting and importing of each neighbor cluster’s X.509v3 digital certificates. EMCC is supported over SIP trunks only. Presence is another feature that’s only supported over SIP trunks. If you want to be able to perform scalable Call Admission Control (CAC) in a distributed multi- cluster call processing model, you will need to point an H.225 or Gatekeeper controlled trunk to an H.323 Gatekeeper for CAC… but if you want to support presence and EMCC between clusters and maintain CAC.

QUESTION 24
Which two Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP profile configuration parameters for a SIP intercluster trunk are mandatory to enable end-to-end RSVP SIP Preconditions between clusters? (Choose two.)

A.    Set the RSVP over SIP parameter to Local RSVP.
B.    Set the RSVP over SIP parameter to E2E.
C.    Set the SIP Rel1XX Options parameter to Disabled.
D.    Set the SIP Rel1XX Options parameter to Send PRACK If 1xx Contains SDP.
E.    Set the SIP Rel1XX Options parameter to Send PRACK for All 1xx Messages.
F.    Check the Fall Back to Local RSVP check box.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
Each Unified Communications Manager cluster and Unified CME should have the same configuration information. For example, Application ID should be the same on each Unified Communications Manager cluster and Unified CME. RSVP Service parameters should be the same on each Unified Communications Manager cluster.

QUESTION 25
What is the number of directory URIs with which a Cisco Unified Communications Manager directory number can be associated?

A.    1
B.    up to 2
C.    up to 3
D.    up to 4
E.    up to 5

Answer: E
Explanation:
Cisco Unified Communications Manager supports dialing using directory URIs for call addressing. Directory URIs look like email addresses and follow the username@host format where the host portion is an IPv4 address or a fully qualified domain name. A directory URI is a uniform resource identifier, a string of characters that can be used to identify a directory number. If that directory number is assigned to a phone, Cisco Unified Communications Manager can route calls to that phone using the directory URI. URI dialing is available for SIP and SCCP endpoints that support directory URIs.

QUESTION 26
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager partition will be associated with a directory URI that is configured for an end user with a primary extension?

A.    null
B.    none
C.    directory URI
D.    default
E.    any partition that the Cisco Unified Communications Manager administrator desires

Answer: C
Explanation:
Cisco Unified Communications Manager supports dialing using directory URIs for call addressing. Directory URIs look like email addresses and follow the username@host format where the host portion is an IPv4 address or a fully qualified domain name. A directory URI is a uniform resource identifier, a string of characters that can be used to identify a directory number. If that directory number is assigned to a phone, Cisco Unified Communications Manager can route calls to that phone using the directory URI. URI dialing is available for SIP and SCCP endpoints that support directory URIs.

QUESTION 27
Which Call Control Discovery function allows the local Cisco Unified Communications Manager to listen for advertisements from remote call-control entities that use the SAF network?

A.    CCD advertising service
B.    CCD requesting service
C.    SAF forwarder
D.    SAF enabled trunks
E.    CCD registration service

Answer: B
Explanation:
SAF and CCD will allow large distributed multi-cluster deployments to have the directory number (DN) ranges of each call routing element advertised dynamically over SAF. Cisco routers act as SAF Forwarders (SAFF), while the call routing elements (e.g. CUCM) act as clients that register with the routers to advertise their DN ranges and listen to the advertisements of other routers.

QUESTION 28
Which codec complexity mode, when deployed on Cisco IOS routers with DSPs using the C5510 chipset, supports the most G.711 calls per DSP?

A.    Low
B.    Medium
C.    High
D.    Secure
E.    Flex

Answer: E
Explanation:
The flex parameter allows the complexity to automatically adjust to either medium or high complexity depending on the needs of a call. For example, if a call uses the G.711 codec, the C5510 chipset automatically adjusts to the medium-complexity mode. However, if the call uses G.729, the C5510 chipset uses the high complexity mode

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QUESTION 21
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You notice that NMSP messages are failing between the two devices.
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QUESTION 21
An engineer is assigned to provide wireless coverage in a provincial capital building. Due to the age and historic nature of the building, the ability to run new copper Ethernet cable to desired AP locations is limited. Which requirement should the engineer specify to overcome this restriction?

A.    Deploy access points where the survey indicates and connect them via fiber optic cable, using a mediaadapter, and locally provide power.
B.    Deploy access points to each phone location converting two spare pairs of copper from the phone line toEthernet and locally provide power.
C.    Deploy access point devices where limited cable can be run or exists and connect high-gain antennas andincrease Tx power to increase cell size.
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QUESTION 21
Which virtualization technology allows for HSRP protocol to be used in the active/active configuration where both HSRP Layer 3 devices can forward network traffic?

A.    OTV
B.    VSS
C.    vPC
D.    VDC

Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which technology extends Layer 2 LANs over any network that supports IP?

A.    OTV
B.    VSS
C.    vPC
D.    VLAN

Answer: A

QUESTION 23
What is the purpose of an OTV edge device?

A.    connect to other data centers
B.    connect to the access layer
C.    connect to the end users
D.    connect to mobile devices

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/DCI/whitepaper/DCI3_OTV_Intro/DCI_1.html
“Edge Device
The edge device (Figure 1-1) performs OTV functions: it receives the Layer 2 traffic for all VLANs that need to be extended to remote locations and dynamically encapsulates the Ethernet frames into IP packets that are then sent across the transport infrastructure.
[…]
Finally, the OTV edge device can be positioned in different parts of the data center. ”

QUESTION 24
Which QoS architecture provides scalability of implementation?

A.    IntServ
B.    DiffServ
C.    LLQ
D.    RSVP

Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which architecture provides a way to deliver end-to-end QoS as required by real-time voice and video business applications?

A.    IntServ
B.    DiffServ
C.    LLQ
D.    ToS
E.    DSCP

Answer: A
Explanation:
DiffServ is known as “Hop-by-Hop” and not “End-to-End”

QUESTION 26
CoS is applied for Layer 2 markings in an Ethernet environment. Which protocol must be configured on the Layer 2 switch port for CoS to work?

A.    MPLS
B.    IEEE 802.1W
C.    IEEE 802.1Q
D.    IEEE 802.1S

Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which protocol is used in an in-band network and why?

A.    UDP, because it is connectionless
B.    SSH, because the username and password are encrypted
C.    Telnet, because the username and password are sent in clear
D.    MSDP, because it uses TCP as its transport protocol

Answer: B

QUESTION 28
What is an advantage of having an out-of-band management?

A.    It is less expensive to have an out-of-band management.
B.    Network devices can still be managed, even in case of network outage.
C.    There is no separation between the production network and the management network.
D.    SSH protocol must be used to manage network devices.

Answer: B

QUESTION 29
The direction of the flow of multicast traffic is based on which protocol?

A.    PIM
B.    IGMP
C.    underlying IGP
D.    MSDP

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/solutions_docs/ip_multicast/White_papers/mcst_ovr.html
“Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF) PIM uses the unicast routing information to create a distribution tree along the reverse path from the receivers towards the source. The multicast routers then forward packets along the distribution tree from the source to the receivers. RPF is a key concept in multicast forwarding. It enables routers to correctly forward multicast traffic down the distribution tree. RPF makes use of the existing unicast routing table to determine the upstream and downstream neighbors. A router will forward a multicast packet only if it is received on the upstream interface. This RPF check helps to guarantee that the distribution tree will be loopfree.”

QUESTION 30
Which option can be implemented to manipulate the election of PIM DR to force multicast traffic to a certain path?

A.    Assign a lower PIM DR priority to the PIM DR interface.
B.    Assign a lower IP address to the PIM DR interface.
C.    Assign a higher PIM DR priority to the PIM DR interface.
D.    Increase the cost on the PIM DR interface.

Answer: C

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QUESTION 41
Which version of AsyncOS for web is required to deploy the Web Security Appliance as a CWS connector?

A.    AsyncOS version 7.7.x
B.    AsyncOS version 7.5.x
C.    AsyncOS version 7.5.7
D.    AsyncOS version 7.5.0

Answer: C

QUESTION 42
What are three benefits of the Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Solution? (Choose three.)

A.    It can protect against command-injection and directory-traversal attacks.
B.    It provides Internet transport while maintaining corporate security policies.
C.    It provides secure remote access to managed computers.
D.    It provides clientless remote access to multiple network-based systems.
E.    It enforces security policies, regardless of the user location.
F.    It uses ACLs to determine best-route connections for clients in a secure environment.

Answer: BCE

QUESTION 43
Which Cisco technology secures the network through malware filtering, category-based control, and reputation-based control?

A.    Cisco ASA 5500 Series appliances
B.    Cisco remote-access VPNs
C.    Cisco IronPort WSA
D.    Cisco IPS

Answer: C

QUESTION 44
Which antispam technology assumes that email from server A, which has a history of distributing spam, is more likely to be spam than email from server B, which does not have a history of distributing spam?

A.    Reputation-based filtering
B.    Context-based filtering
C.    Cisco ESA multilayer approach
D.    Policy-based filtering

Answer: A

QUESTION 45
Which Cisco technology is a modular security service that combines a stateful inspection firewall with next-generation application awareness, providing near real-time threat protection?

A.    Cisco ASA 5500 series appliances
B.    Cisco ASA CX Context-Aware Security
C.    WSA
D.    Internet Edge Firewall / IPS

Answer: B

QUESTION 46
Which three statements about Cisco ASA CX are true? (Choose three.)

A.    It groups multiple ASAs as a single logical device.
B.    It can perform context-aware inspection.
C.    It provides high-density security services with high availability.
D.    It uses policy-based interface controls to inspect and forward TCP- and UDP-based packets.
E.    It can make context-aware decisions.
F.    It uses four cooperative architectural constructs to build the firewall.

Answer: BEF

QUESTION 47
During initial configuration, the Cisco ASA can be configured to drop all traffic if the ASA CX SSP fails by using which command in a policy-map?

A.    cxsc fail
B.    cxsc fail-close
C.    cxsc fail-open
D.    cxssp fail-close

Answer: B

QUESTION 48
Cisco AVC allows control of which three of the following? (Choose three.)

A.    Facebook
B.    LWAPP
C.    IPv6
D.    MySpace
E.    Twitter
F.    WCCP

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 49
The Web Security Appliance has identities defined for faculty and staff, students, and default access. The faculty and staff identity identifies users based on the source network and authenticated credentials. The identity for students identifies users based on the source network along with successful authentication credentials. The global identity is for guest users not authenticated against the domain.
Recently, a change was made to the organization’s security policy to allow faculty and staff access to a social network website, and the security group changed the access policy for faculty and staff to allow the social networking category.
Which are the two most likely reasons that the category is still being blocked for a faculty and staff user? (Choose two.)

A.    The user is being matched against the student policy because the user did not enter credentials.
B.    The user is using an unsupported browser so the credentials are not working.
C.    The social networking URL was entered into a custom URL category that is blocked in the access policy.
D.    The user is connected to the wrong network and is being blocked by the student policy.
E.    The social networking category is being allowed but the AVC policy is still blocking the website.

Answer: CE

QUESTION 50
Which five system management protocols are supported by the Intrusion Prevention System? (Choose five.)

A.    SNMPv2c
B.    SNMPv1
C.    SNMPv2
D.    SNMPv3
E.    syslog
F.    SDEE
G.    SMTP

Answer: ABCFG

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QUESTION 21
Which statement is true when implementing a router with a dynamic public IP address in a crypto map based site-to-site VPN?

A.    The router must be configured with a dynamic crypto map.
B.    Certificates are always used for phase 1 authentication.
C.    The tunnel establishment will fail if the router is configured as a responder only.
D.    The router and the peer router must have NAT traversal enabled.

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QUESTION 21
Which two EAP types require server side certificates? (Choose two.)

A.    EAP-TLS
B.    EAP-PEAP
C.    EAP-MD5
D.    LEAP
E.    EAP-FAST
F.    MSCHAPv2

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QUESTION 21
Which technology provides forwarding-plane abstraction to support Layer 2 to Layer 7 network services in Cisco Nexus 1000V?

A.    Virtual Service Node
B.    Virtual Service Gateway
C.    Virtual Service Data Path
D.    Virtual Service Agent

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QUESTION 71
In a Cisco UCS environment, what are the three power types in a power policy? (Choose three.)

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B.    grid
C.    redund
D.    n-plus-1
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QUESTION 21
If there are four I/O module links from the Cisco Unified Computing System 5108 Blade Chassis to the Cisco Unified Computing System 6248UP Fabric Interconnect, which dynamic vNICs can be defined?

A.    9
B.    16
C.    24
D.    48
E.    54
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QUESTION 21
The following commands are issued on a Cisco Router:

Router(configuration)#access-list 199 permit tcp host 10.1.1.1 host 172.16.1.1
Router(configuration)#access-list 199 permit tcp host 172.16.1.1 host 10.1.1.1
Router(configuration)#exit
Router#debug ip packet 199

What will the debug output on the console show?

A.    All IP packets passing through the router
B.    Only IP packets with the source address of 10.1.1.1
C.    All IP packets from 10.1.1.1 to 172.16.1.1
D.    All IP Packets between 10.1.1.1 and 172.16.1.1

Answer: D
Explanation:
In this example, the “debug ip packet” command is tied to access list 199, specifying which IP packets should be debugged. Access list 199 contains two lines, one going from the host with IP address 10.1.1.1 to 172.16.1.1 and the other specifying all TCP packets from host 172.16.1.1 to 10.1.1.1.

QUESTION 22
What level of logging is enabled on a Router where the following logs are seen?

%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up

A.    alerts
B.    critical
C.    errors
D.    notifications

Answer: D
Explanation:
Cisco routers, switches, PIX and ASA firewalls prioritize log messages into 8 levels (0-7), as shown below:

LevelLevel NameDescription
0 Emergencies System is unusable
1 Alerts Immediate action needed
2 Critical Critical conditions
3 Errors Error conditions
4 Warnings Warning conditions
5 Notifications Informational messages
6 Informational Normal but significant conditions
7 Debugging Debugging messages

When you enable logging for a specific level, all logs of that severity and greater (numerically less) will be logged. In this case we can see that logging level of 3 (as seen by the 3 in “LINK-3-UPDOWN”) and level 5 (as seen by the 5 in “LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN”) are shown, which means that logging level 5 must have been configured. As shown by the table, logging level 5 is Notifications.

QUESTION 23
You have the followings commands on your Cisco Router:

ip ftp username admin
ip ftp password backup

You have been asked to switch from FTP to HTTP. Which two commands will you use to replace the existing commands?

A.    ip http username admin
B.    ip http client username admin
C.    ip http password backup
D.    ip http client password backup
E.    ip http server username admin
F.    ip http server password backup

Answer: BD
Explanation:
Configuring the HTTP Client
Perform this task to enable the HTTP client and configure optional client characteristics. The standard HTTP 1.1 client and the secure HTTP client are always enabled. No commands exist to disable the HTTP client. For information about configuring optional characteristics for the HTTPS client, see the HTTPS-HTTP Server and Client with SSL 3.0, Release 12.2(15)T, feature module.

SUMMARY STEPS
1. enable
2. configure terminal
3. ip http client cache {ager interval minutes | memory {file file-size-limit | pool pool-size-limit}
4. ip http client connection {forceclose | idle timeout seconds | retry count | timeout seconds}
5. ip http client password password
6. ip http client proxy-server proxy-name proxy-port port-number
7. ip http client response timeout seconds
8. ip http client source-interface type number
9. ip http client username username

Reference: HTTP 1.1 Web Server and Client.
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/netmgmt/configuration/guide/nm_http_web.html

QUESTION 24
You have 2 NTP servers in your network – 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.2.
You want to configure a Cisco router to use 10.1.1.2 as its NTP server before falling back to
10.1.1.1. Which commands will you use to configure the router?

A.    ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2
B.    ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 primary
C.    ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 prefer
D.    ntp server 10.1.1.1 fallback
ntp server 10.1.1.2

Answer: C
Explanation:
A router can be configured to prefer an NTP source over another. A preferred server’s responses are discarded only if they vary dramatically from the other time sources. Otherwise, the preferred server is used for synchronization without consideration of the other time sources. Preferred servers are usually specified when they are known to be extremely accurate. To specify a preferred server, use the prefer keyword appended to the ntp server command. The following example tells the router to prefer TimeServerOne over TimeServerTwo:
Router#config terminal
Enter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/Z.

Router(config)#ntp server TimeServerOne prefer
Router(config)#ntp server TimeServerTwo
Router(config)#^Z

QUESTION 25
The following command is issued on a Cisco Router:

Router(configuration)#logging console warnings

Which alerts will be seen on the console?

A.    Warnings only
B.    debugging, informational, notifications, warnings
C.    warnings, errors, critical, alerts, emergencies
D.    notifications, warnings, errors
E.    warnings, errors, critical, alerts

Answer: C
Explanation:
Cisco routers prioritize log messages into 8 levels (0-7), as shown below:

LevelLevel NameDescription
0 Emergencies System is unusable
1 Alerts Immediate action needed
2 Critical Critical conditions
3 Errors Error conditions
4 Warnings Warning conditions
5 Notifications Informational messages
6 Informational Normal but significant conditions
7 Debugging Debugging messages

When you enable logging for a specific level, all logs of that severity and greater (numerically less) will be logged. In this case, when you enable console logging of warning messages (level 4), it will log levels 0-4, making the correct answer warnings, errors, critical, alerts, and emergencies.

QUESTION 26
Which two of the following options are categories of Network Maintenance tasks?

A.    Firefighting
B.    Interrupt-driven
C.    Policy-based
D.    Structured
E.    Foundational

Answer: BD
Explanation:
Proactive Versus Reactive Network Maintenance:
Network maintenance tasks can be categorized as one of the following:

Structured tasks: Performed as a predefined plan.
Interrupt-driven tasks: Involve resolving issues as they are reported.

QUESTION 27
A customer network engineer has made configuration changes that have resulted in some loss of connectivity. You have been called in to evaluate a switch network and suggest resolutions to the problems.

271
PC2 in VLAN 200 is unable to ping the gateway address 172.16.200.1; identify the issue.

A.    VTP domain name mismatch on SW4
B.    VLAN 200 not configured on SW1
C.    VLAN 200 not configured on SW2
D.    VLAN 200 not configured on SW4

Answer: D

QUESTION 28
A customer network engineer has made configuration changes that have resulted in some loss of connectivity. You have been called in to evaluate a switch network and suggest resolutions to the problems.
281
Which of statement is true regarding STP issue identified with switches in the given topology?

A.    Loopguard configured on the New_Switch places the ports in loop inconsistent state
B.    Rootguard configured on SW1 places the ports in root inconsistent state
C.    Bpduguard configured on the New_Switch places the access ports in error-disable
D.    Rootguard configured on SW2 places the ports in root inconsistent state

Answer: A

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