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QUESTION 21
Pilot testing of the new switching infrastructure finds that when the root port is lost, STP immediately replaces the root port with an alternative root port. Which spanning-tree technology is used to accomplish backup root port selection?

A.    PVST+
B.    PortFast
C.    BackboneFast
D.    UplinkFast
E.    Loop Guard
F.    UDLD

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QUESTION 21
You have configured a Cisco Unity Express server that uses the G.711 codec. You want to send outbound messages in a format that uses lower bandwidth. However, you want to keep the quality of the incoming message high. Which two tasks should you perform? (Choose two.)

A.    Convert the incoming messages to G.729a.
B.    Keep the incoming messages as G.711.
C.    Convert the outgoing message to 64 kb/s using G.729a.
D.    Convert the outgoing messages to G.726.
E.    Send the outgoing messages in the G.711 format.
F.    Store the message using the original codec, but convert it to 64 kb/s for outgoing.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 22
Which email integration will allow a Lotus Notes client to retrieve emails from Cisco Unity Express?

A.    MIME
B.    SMTP
C.    JTAPI
D.    CTIQBE
E.    IMAP
F.    Cisco Unity Express email infrastructure

Answer: E

QUESTION 23
What is the maximum number of custom auto-attendant applications that you can set up in Cisco Unity Express?

A.    1
B.    2
C.    3
D.    4
E.    5
F.    6

Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which two parameters are required when you configure the Voice Profile for Internet Mail location on Cisco Unity Express? (Choose two.)

A.    domain name or IP address
B.    destination type
C.    display name
D.    location ID
E.    dial ID
F.    Simple Mail Transfer Protocol domain name

Answer: AD

QUESTION 25
What is the maximum number of users that can be imported into Cisco Unity Express from Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express at one time?

A.    200
B.    100
C.    500
D.    50

Answer: A

QUESTION 26
A user has reported that keys pressed when accessing Cisco Unity Express are not being acknowledged by the system. This configuration is found on the voice-enabled IOS router:

dial-peer voice 6800 voip
destination-pattern 5…
session protocol sipv2
session target ipv4:10.3.6.127
codec g711ulaw
no vad

Which configuration command is needed to complete the configuration and solve the problem?

A.    dtmf-relay sip-notify
B.    dtmf-relay rtp-nte
C.    dtmf-relay cisco-rtp
D.    dtmf-relay h245-signal

Answer: A

QUESTION 27
An end user is complaining that when they try to retrieve their voicemail messages, they hear the message “mailbox is currently in use.” What must the administrator do to resolve this issue?

A.    The administrator must reload the mailbox for the user.
B.    The administrator must verify that the mailbox is enabled.
C.    The administrator must verify that the primary extension that is associated with the end user is in an E.164 format.
D.    The administrator must unlock the mailbox for the user.

Answer: D

QUESTION 28
In order for Cisco Unified Presence to show the presence status of an IP phone, which two configuration steps must be completed in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager server? (Choose two.)

A.    Check the Allow Presence Status check box.
B.    Associate the end device with the user.
C.    Allow the SIP publish trunk to forward presence status messages.
D.    Associate the directory number with the user.
E.    Enable Cisco Unified Personal Communicator Status flag.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 29
What are four capabilities of Cisco Unified Presence user communication? (Choose four.)

A.    video conferencing
B.    web collaboration
C.    instant messaging
D.    basic audio
E.    advanced audio/web hosting
F.    automatic LAN configuration
G.    whiteboarding

Answer: ABCD

QUESTION 30
From which entity does a Cisco Unified Personal Communicator device receive its TFTP server address when it is integrated with a Cisco Unified Presence Server for failover?

A.    Cisco Unified Presence server
B.    Cisco Unified Communications Manager TFTP server
C.    Device profile in Cisco Unified Communication Manager
D.    Manually created upon installation of Cisco Unified Personal Communicator
E.    Cisco Unified Personal Communicator does not use TFTP.

Answer: A

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QUESTION 21
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QUESTION 509
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QUESTION 161
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QUESTION 138
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QUESTION 21
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QUESTION 11
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QUESTION 392
Which two statements regarding the Cisco VCS search and transformation process are true? (Choose two.)

A.    The Cisco VCS applies the search rules in priority order (all rules with priority 255 are processed first, then rules with priority 254, and so on).
B.    Transforms do not use priority numbers.
C.    Presearch transforms are applied before call policy is configured and before user policy is applied.
D.    Presearch transforms are applied after call policy is configured but before user policy is applied.
E.    The Cisco VCS applies the search rules in priority order (all rules with priority 1 are processed first, then priority 2, and so on).
F.    You cannot set up search rules according to the protocol SIP or H.323.

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QUESTION 249
Some of yours users report issues when they are dialing extensions located in other branch offices. Sometimes the calls are set up successfully, and sometimes users experience problems during call setup. Which two reasons for the issue are true? (Choose two)

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QUESTION 31
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QUESTION 31
Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)

A.    There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B.    A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C.    Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D.    In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network
media before transmitting.
E.    The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.

Answer: ABE
Explanation:
Half-duplex Ethernet is defined in the original 802.3 Ethernet and Cisco says you only use one wire pair with a digital signal running in both directions on the wire. It also uses the CSMA/CD protocol to help prevent collisions and to permit retransmitting if a collision does occur. If a hub is attached to a switch, it must operate in half-duplex mode because the end stations must be able to detect collisions. Half-duplex Ethernet–typically 10BaseT–is only about 30 to 40 percent efficient as Cisco sees it, because a large 10BaseT network will usually only give you 3- to 4Mbps–at most. Full-duplex Ethernet uses two pairs of wires, instead of one wire pair like half duplex. Also, full duplex uses a point-to-point connection between the transmitter of the transmitting device and the receiver of the receiving device, which means that with full-duplex data transfer, you get a faster data transfer compared to half duplex. And because the transmitted data is sent on a different set of wires than the received data, no collisions occur. The reason you don’t need to worry about collisions is because now Full-duplex Ethernet is like a freeway with multiple lanes instead of the single-lane road provided by half duplex. Full-duplex Ethernet is supposed to offer 100 percent efficiency in both directions; this means you can get 20Mbps with a 10Mbps Ethernet running full duplex, or 200Mbps for FastEthernet.

QUESTION 32
Which router command can be used to determine the status of Serial 0/0?

A.    show ip route
B.    show interfaces
C.    show s0/0 status
D.    debug s0/0
E.    show run
F.    show version

Answer: B

QUESTION 33
What is the subnet address of 172.16.159.159/22?

A.    172.16.0.0
B.    172.16.128.0
C.    172.16.156.0
D.    172.16.159.0
E.    172.16.159.128
F.    172.16.192.0

Answer: C
Explanation:
Converting to binary format it comes to
11111111.11111111.11111100.00000000 or
255.255.252.0
Starting with 172.16.0.0 and having increment of 4 we get.

QUESTION 34
An administrator is working with the 192.168.4.0 network, which has been subnetted with a /26 mask. Which two addresses can be assigned to hosts within the same subnet? (Choose two.)

A.    192.168.4.61
B.    192.168.4.63
C.    192.168.4.67
D.    192.168.4.125
E.    192.168.4.128
F.    192.168.4.132

Answer: CD
Explanation:
Only the values of host with 67 and 125 fall within the range of /26 CIDR subnet mask, all others lie beyond it.

QUESTION 35
Refer to the exhibit. The internetwork is using subnets of the address 192.168.1.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224. The routing protocol in use is RIP version 1.
Which address could be assigned to the FastEthernet interface on RouterA?

351

A.    192.168.1.31
B.    192.168.1.64
C.    192.168.1.127
D.    192.168.1.190
E.    192.168.1.192

Answer: D

QUESTION 36
What is the network address for the host with IP address 192.168.23.61/28?

A.    192.168.23.0
B.    192.168.23.32
C.    192.168.23.48
D.    192.168.23.56
E.    192.168.23.60

Answer: C
Explanation:
convert bit-length prefix to quad-dotted decimal representation, then from it find the number of bits used for subnetting you can find previously calculated number of subnets by separating subnets each having value of last bit used for subnet masking Find that your IP address is in which subnet, that subnet’s first address is network address and last address is broadcast address. Based on above steps the answer is option C.

QUESTION 37
What is the best practice when assigning IP addresses in a small office of six hosts?

A.    Use a DHCP server that is located at the headquarters.
B.    Use a DHCP server that is located at the branch office.
C.    Assign the addresses by using the local CDP protocol.
D.    Assign the addresses statically on each node.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Its best to use static addressing scheme where the number of systems is manageable rather than use dynamic protocol as it is easy to operate and manage.

QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibit. The enterprise has decided to use the network address 172.16.0.0. The network administrator needs to design a classful addressing scheme to accommodate the three subnets, with 30, 40, and 50 hosts, as shown.
What subnet mask would accommodate this network?

381

A.    255.255.255.192
B.    255.255.255.224
C.    255.255.255.240
D.    255.255.255.248
E.    255.255.255.252

Answer: A

QUESTION 39
Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)

A.    The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
B.    The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
C.    The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0
D.    The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
E.    The network is not subnetted.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
The mask 255.255.254.0 (/23) used with a Class A address means that there are 15 subnet bits and 9 host bits. The block size in the third octet is 2 (256 – 254). So this makes the subnets in 0, 2, 4, 6, etc., all the way to 254. The host 10.16.3.65 is in the 2.0 subnet. The next subnet is 4.0, so the broadcast address for the 2.0 subnet is 3.255. The valid host addresses are 2.1 through 3.254

QUESTION 40
Given a Class C IP address subnetted with a /30 subnet mask, how many valid host IP addresses are available on each of the subnets?

A.    1
B.    2
C.    4
D.    8
E.    252
F.    254

Answer: B
Explanation:
/30 CIDR corresponds to mask 55.255.255.252 whose binary is 11111100 which means 6 subnet bits and 2 host bits which means 62 subnets and 2 hosts per subnet.

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