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QUESTION 31
The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of a corporation decided to move all email to a cloud computing environment.
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) was told to research the risk involved in this environment.
Which of the following measures should be implemented to minimize the risk of hosting email in the cloud?

A.    Remind users that all emails with sensitive information need be encrypted and physically
inspect the cloud computing.
B.    Ensure logins are over an encrypted channel and obtain an NDA and an SLA from the
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C.    Ensure logins are over an encrypted channel and remind users to encrypt all emails that
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QUESTION 31
After several passes with a malware removal program, the program keeps detecting the same malware infection after a reboot. Which of the following should be done to attempt to remove the offending malware?

A.    Run the malware removal program while disconnected from the Internet
B.    Run the malware removal program in Windows Safe Mode
C.    Reinstall the malware removal program from a trusted source
D.    Set the malware removal program to run each time the computer is rebooted

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QUESTION 31
After several passes with a malware removal program, the program keeps detecting the same malware infection after a reboot. Which of the following should be done to attempt to remove the offending malware?

A.    Run the malware removal program while disconnected from the Internet
B.    Run the malware removal program in Windows Safe Mode
C.    Reinstall the malware removal program from a trusted source
D.    Set the malware removal program to run each time the computer is rebooted

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QUESTION 31
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A.    Replace the existing hard drive.
B.    Replace the power supply.
C.    Remove the floppy disk.
D.    Remove the CD-ROM.
E.    Split an existing power connection.

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QUESTION 31
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QUESTION 21
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QUESTION 21
A technician wants to separate networks on a switch. Which of the following should be configured to allow this?

A.    VLAN
B.    Trunking
C.    Spanning tree
D.    Traffic filtering

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QUESTION 21
A company is developing a new web application for its Internet users and is following a secure coding methodology.
Which of the following methods would BEST assist the developers in determining if any unknown vulnerabilities are present?

A.    Conduct web server load tests.
B.    Conduct static code analysis.
C.    Conduct fuzzing attacks.
D.    Conduct SQL injection and XSS attacks.

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QUESTION 21
A company is developing a new web application for its Internet users and is following a secure coding methodology.
Which of the following methods would BEST assist the developers in determining if any unknown vulnerabilities are present?

A.    Conduct web server load tests.
B.    Conduct static code analysis.
C.    Conduct fuzzing attacks.
D.    Conduct SQL injection and XSS attacks.

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QUESTION 409
Engineers are preparing to move guests to new compute and storage infrastructure. Basic network and SAN connectivity have been established. Which of the following options are valid NEXT steps to prepare for guest migration to the new infrastructure? (Select two.)

A.    Tag the live migration VLAN on the trunk to the new servers
B.    Correctly size and provision NFS LUNs on the new storage
C.    Zone HBAs
D.    Prep mirror VMs on new hosts for data migration
E.    Tag the SAN trunks with the correct guest network VLANs

Answer: AD

QUESTION 410
An administrator is implementing a private cloud that will be used as a test environment. To limit the number of guests per subnet to a maximum of 14, the administrator implemented a /20 network. Which of the following should the administrator use to assign the networks?

A.    DHCP
B.    Subnet
C.    VLAN
D.    Gateway

Answer: A

QUESTION 411
A Chief Information Officer (CIO) has summoned an administrator due to the datacenter power bill being significantly higher than normal. The administrator explains that a new array was installed for a 20TB CRM application. Which of the following solutions would provide a new performance benefit and also reduce power consumption?

A.    SSD
B.    SAS
C.    SATA
D.    FC

Answer: A

QUESTION 412
Cloud bursting can alleviate which of the following attacks?

A.    Buffer Overflow
B.    Brute Force
C.    XSS
D.    DDOS

Answer: D

QUESTION 413
An administrator is testing a new web server from outside of the corporate firewall. The administrator performs a test from a single PC and the web server responds accordingly. The administrator then provisions several virtual machines on a network behind NAT and uses them to perform the same operation on the web server at the same time, but thereafter soon discovers that none of the machines can reach the web server. Which of the following could be responsible?

A.    IPS
B.    Blacklisting
C.    IDS
D.    Whitelisting
E.    Firewall

Answer: E

QUESTION 414
Which of the following would a company implement to provide authentication to multiple websites that are delivered through PaaS?

A.    Federation services
B.    MAC
C.    Multi-factor authentication
D.    RBAC

Answer: D

QUESTION 415
An administrator is responsible for managing a host that is part of a private cloud. The host has one physical quad core CPU. The administrator is tasked with creating a new guest that requires a single CPU. Which of the following actions should the administrator do?

A.    Assign 1 virtual CPU to the Guest
B.    Assign 1 virtual CPU to the Host
C.    Assign 1 physical CPU to the Guest
D.    Assign 1 physical CPU to the Host

Answer: A

QUESTION 416
Which of the following storage technologies is IP-based?

A.    SCSI
B.    DAS
C.    FCP
D.    NAS

Answer: D

QUESTION 417
An administrator has created a new virtual server according to specifications and verified that TCP/IP settings are correct. When the VM is powered on, however, an error message indicates that a network card MAC address conflict exists. Which of the following would resolve this issue?

A.    Remove the virtual NIC and configure another one.
B.    Add an additional NIC with a loopback interface.
C.    Ping the IP address to determine the location of the conflict.
D.    Change the MAC to ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff and obtain a new address.

Answer: A

QUESTION 418
An administrator is no longer receiving alerting messages from the web server platform that recently failed over to a new secondary datacenter due to a power failure. Which of the following is the cause of the problem?

A.    Port 21 in only allowed inbound at the primary datacenter
B.    Port 22 to the log server is blocked outbound
C.    Port 162 in DMZ is blocked inbound
D.    Port 162 in DMZ is blocked outbound

Answer: C

QUESTION 419
An organization wants to create a server VM that is segregated from the rest of the servers. Which of the following should the server administrator configure?

A.    Virtual NIC
B.    Trunk port
C.    Virtual memory
D.    VPN connection

Answer: A

QUESTION 420
Which of the following ensures that there is enough space for vendors to install their programs and run the software they will be managing for various SaaS products?

A.    Network isolation
B.    Laws and regulations
C.    Multi-tenancy
D.    Data segregation

Answer: C

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QUESTION 21
Which of the following features allows for easier navigation of long lists on a tablet device?

A.    Pinch-zoom
B.    Multitouch
C.    Scrollbars
D.    Touch flow

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://gigaom.com/2010/03/08/touchscreen-tablets/

QUESTION 22
Which of the following file system types is used primarily for optical media?

A.    FAT32
B.    NTFS
C.    HPFS
D.    CDFS

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://www.computerhope.com/jargon/c/cdfs.htm

QUESTION 23
When moving files from a Microsoft gaming console, which of the following command line utilities is recommended to transfer files?

A.    IMAP
B.    XCOPY
C.    DISKPART
D.    FDISK

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.microsoft.com/resources/documentation/windows/xp/all/proddocs/en-us/xcopy.mspx?mfr=true

QUESTION 24
Which of the following should a technician implement to prevent external contractors from physically plugging devices into the company’s network jacks unless such jacks are designated for guest use?

A.    Disable DHCP and assign a static IP address to each network device physically connected to the network.
B.    Enable MAC address filtering across all network jacks and record the MAC address of guest devices.
C.    Disable all switch ports when they are not utilized and enable them on an as needed basis.
D.    Place guest network jacks in public areas and all other jacks in secure areas as needed.

Answer: C
Explanation:
The best way is to disable all switch ports when they are not utilized. Switch them on when you need them. This way, you can prevent external contractors from physically plugging devices in to company’s network jacks.

QUESTION 25
After installing a new printer the organization determines that there are problems printing images and very large files. Which of the following will MOST likely resolve the issue?

A.    Update the drivers using WHQL drivers
B.    Install additional memory to each computer
C.    Install additional memory to the printer
D.    Apply the latest OS service pack

Answer: C
Explanation:
http://www.ehow.com/how_6875286_install-printer-memory.html

QUESTION 26
Which of the following command line tools will terminate a non-system process without restarting the computer?

A.    Shutdown
B.    Kill
C.    Erase
D.    Break

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.tech-recipes.com/rx/446/xp_kill_windows_process_command_line_taskkill/

QUESTION 27
After accidentally removing a hard drive from a server with three drives in a RAID 5 configuration, a technician notices the server locks up and shuts down. Which of the following can the technician do to quickly fix the problem?

A.    Replace the RAID controller and boot.
B.    Reinsert the drive and boot.
C.    Plug the drive back in, the system will resume automatically.
D.    Remove all drives and rebuild the array.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Just reinsert the drive and boot the computer. The computer will start since it is a RAID 5 configuration.

QUESTION 28
A customer calls an IT consultant to explain an issue they are having with their Windows 7 Professional PC. Windows Update attempts to install patches upon each startup but fails on the same single update. The customer has attempted to re-run Windows Update from Control Panel but the issue remains. Which of the following courses of action would BEST resolve the problem?

A.    Running a full DEFRAG on the system
B.    Clearing the AppData temp folder entirely
C.    Clearing the Windows Update download cache entirely
D.    Uninstalling the Windows Update feature in Windows 7 and reinstalling it directly from the Microsoft website

Answer: C
Explanation:
http://larsjoergensen.net/windows/windows-7/how-to-clear-the-windows-update-download-cache-in-windows-7

QUESTION 29
A user reports that their wireless connectivity is being spotty. The issue seems to interrupt their wireless signal connection when the laptop screen is tilted forward or backward during operation. When this happens, the entire wireless signal drops out until the screen is left in position for a
good minute or so. Which of the following MOST likely explains what is happening?

A.    The hinges on the laptop screen are not strong enough to support the wireless signal cables.
B.    The wireless card is losing contact to its socket when the screen is opening/closing.
C.    The laptop is designed to work optimally with wireless when the screen is at a perfect 90 degree angle.
D.    The wireless signal cables are being crimped when the screen is opening/closing.

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://compnetworking.about.com/od/wirelessfaqs/f/wifilaptoprange.htm

QUESTION 30
A user states that they cannot connect to the network or the Internet. The technician determines the issue is that the computer has a static IP address and needs to use DHCP to work correctly. The technician sets the NIC to automatically assign an IP address. Which of the following should the technician perform NEXT?

A.    Identify the type of network card and what Operating System the computer is running
B.    Confirm the computer is back on the network and has Internet connectivity
C.    They need to annotate what the static IP address was and inform the employee’s manager
D.    They need to determine why the NIC was assigned a static IP address

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd183692(v=ws.10).aspx

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QUESTION 211
A penetration tester finds that a company’s login credentials for the email client were client being sent in clear text. Which of the following should be done to provide encrypted logins to the email server?

A.    Enable IPSec and configure SMTP.
B.    Enable SSH and LDAP credentials.
C.    Enable MIME services and POP3.
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QUESTION 31
Which of the following characteristics differentiate a rainbow table attack from a brute force attack? (Select TWO).

A.    Rainbow table attacks greatly reduce compute cycles at attack time.
B.    Rainbow tables must include precompiled hashes.
C.    Rainbow table attacks do not require access to hashed passwords.
D.    Rainbow table attacks must be performed on the network.
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QUESTION 11
An administrator would like to review the effectiveness of existing security in the enterprise. Which of the following would be the BEST place to start?

A.    Review past security incidents and their resolution
B.    Rewrite the existing security policy
C.    Implement an intrusion prevention system
D.    Install honey pot systems

Answer: C
Explanation:
The main functions of intrusion prevention systems are to identify malicious activity, log information about this activity, attempt to block/stop it, and report it

QUESTION 12
A company has proprietary mission critical devices connected to their network which are configured remotely by both employees and approved customers. The administrator wants to monitor device security without changing their baseline configuration.
Which of the following should be implemented to secure the devices without risking availability?

A.    Host-based firewall
B.    IDS
C.    IPS
D.    Honeypot

Answer: B
Explanation:
An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a device or software application that monitors network or system activities for malicious activities or policy violations and produces reports to a management station. IDS come in a variety of “flavors” and approach the goal of detecting suspicious traffic in different ways. There are network based (NIDS) and host based (HIDS) intrusion detection systems. Some systems may attempt to stop an intrusion attempt but this is neither required nor expected of a monitoring system. Intrusion detection and prevention systems (IDPS) are primarily focused on identifying possible incidents, logging information about them, and reporting attempts. In addition, organizations use IDPSes for other purposes, such as identifying problems with security policies, documenting existing threats and deterring individuals from violating security policies. IDPSes have become a necessary addition to the security infrastructure of nearly every organization.
IDPSes typically record information related to observed events, notify security administrators of important observed events and produce reports. Many IDPSes can also respond to a detected threat by attempting to prevent it from succeeding. They use several response techniques, which involve the IDPS stopping the attack itself, changing the security environment (e.g. reconfiguring a firewall) or changing the attack’s content.

QUESTION 13
Lab Sim – Configure the Firewall
Task: Configure the firewall (fill out the table) to allow these four rules:

– Only allow the Accounting computer to have HTTPS access to the Administrative server.
– Only allow the HR computer to be able to communicate with the Server 2 System over SCP.
– Allow the IT computer to have access to both the Administrative Server 1 and Administrative Server 2

131
132

Answer:
Use the following answer for this simulation task.
Below table has all the answers required for this question.

133

Explanation:
Firewall rules act like ACLs, and they are used to dictate what traffic can pass between the firewall and the internal network. Three possible actions can be taken based on the rule’s criteria:

Block the connection
Allow the connection
Allow the connection only if it is secured

TCP is responsible for providing a reliable, one-to-one, connection-oriented session.
TCP establishes a connection and ensures that the other end receives any packets sent.
Two hosts communicate packet results with each other. TCP also ensures that packets are decoded and sequenced properly. This connection is persistent during the session.
When the session ends, the connection is torn down.
UDP provides an unreliable connectionless communication method between hosts.
UDP is considered a best-effort protocol, but it’s considerably faster than TCP.
The sessions don’t establish a synchronized session like the kind used in TCP, and UDP doesn’t guarantee error-free communications.
The primary purpose of UDP is to send small packets of information.
The application is responsible for acknowledging the correct reception of the data.
Port 22 is used by both SSH and SCP with UDP.
Port 443 is used for secure web connections ?HTTPS and is a TCP port.
Thus to make sure only the Accounting computer has HTTPS access to the Administrative server you should use TCP port 443 and set the rule to allow communication between 10.4.255.10/24 (Accounting) and 10.4.255.101 (Administrative server1) Thus to make sure that only the HR computer has access to Server2 over SCP you need use of TCP port 22 and set the rule to allow communication between 10.4.255.10/23 (HR) and 10.4.255.2 (server2)
Thus to make sure that the IT computer can access both the Administrative servers you need to use a port and accompanying port number and set the rule to allow communication between:
10.4.255.10.25 (IT computer) and 10.4.255.101 (Administrative server1)
10.4.255.10.25 (IT computer) and 10.4.255.102 (Administrative server2)

QUESTION 14
Hotspot Question
The security administrator has installed a new firewall which implements an implicit DENY policy by default Click on the firewall and configure it to allow ONLY the following communication.

1. The Accounting workstation can ONLY access the web server on the public network over the default HTTPS port. The accounting workstation should not access other networks.
2. The HR workstation should be restricted to communicate with the Financial server ONLY, over the default SCP port
3. The Admin workstation should ONLY be able to access the servers on the secure network over the default TFTP port.

Instructions: The firewall will process the rules in a top-down manner in order as a first match The port number must be typed in and only one port number can be entered per rule Type ANY for all ports. The original firewall configuration can be reset at any time by pressing the reset button. Once you have met the simulation requirements, click save and then Done to submit.

141

142

Answer:

143

Explanation:
Implicit deny is the default security stance that says if you aren’t specifically granted access or privileges for a resource, you’re denied access by default.
Rule #1 allows the Accounting workstation to ONLY access the web server on the public network over the default HTTPS port, which is TCP port 443.
Rule #2 allows the HR workstation to ONLY communicate with the Financial server over the default SCP port, which is TCP Port 22
Rule #3 & Rule #4 allow the Admin workstation to ONLY access the Financial and Purchasing servers located on the secure network over the default TFTP port, which is Port 69.

QUESTION 15
Which of the following firewall rules only denies DNS zone transfers?

A.    deny udp any any port 53
B.    deny ip any any
C.    deny tcp any any port 53
D.    deny all dns packets

Answer: C
Explanation:
DNS operates over TCP and UDP port 53. TCP port 53 is used for zone transfers.

QUESTION 16
A security administrator suspects that an increase in the amount of TFTP traffic on the network is due to unauthorized file transfers, and wants to configure a firewall to block all TFTP traffic.
Which of the following would accomplish this task?

A.    Deny TCP port 68
B.    Deny TCP port 69
C.    Deny UDP port 68
D.    Deny UDP port 69

Answer: D
Explanation:
Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) is a simple file-exchange protocol that doesn’t require authentication. It operates on UDP port 69.

QUESTION 17
Sara, a security technician, has received notice that a vendor coming in for a presentation will require access to a server outside of the network. Currently, users are only able to access remote sites through a VPN connection. How could Sara BEST accommodate the vendor?

A.    Allow incoming IPSec traffic into the vendor’s IP address.
B.    Set up a VPN account for the vendor, allowing access to the remote site.
C.    Turn off the firewall while the vendor is in the office, allowing access to the remote site.
D.    Write a firewall rule to allow the vendor to have access to the remote site.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Firewall rules are used to define what traffic is able pass between the firewall and the internal network. Firewall rules block the connection, allow the connection, or allow the connection only if it is secured. Firewall rules can be applied to inbound traffic or outbound traffic and any type of network.

QUESTION 18
A technician is deploying virtual machines for multiple customers on a single physical host to reduce power consumption in a data center. Which of the following should be recommended to isolate the VMs from one another?

A.    Implement a virtual firewall
B.    Install HIPS on each VM
C.    Virtual switches with VLANs
D.    Develop a patch management guide

Answer: C
Explanation:
A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches. VLANs are used for traffic management. VLANs can be used to isolate traffic between network segments.

QUESTION 19
A router has a single Ethernet connection to a switch. In the router configuration, the Ethernet interface has three sub-interfaces, each configured with ACLs applied to them and 802.1q trunks.
Which of the following is MOST likely the reason for the sub-interfaces?

A.    The network uses the subnet of 255.255.255.128.
B.    The switch has several VLANs configured on it.
C.    The sub-interfaces are configured for VoIP traffic.
D.    The sub-interfaces each implement quality of service.

Answer: B
Explanation:
A subinterface is a division of one physical interface into multiple logical interfaces. Routers commonly employ subinterfaces for a variety of purposes, most common of these are for routing traffic between VLANs. Also, IEEE 802.1Q is the networking standard that supports virtual LANs (VLANs) on an Ethernet network.

QUESTION 20
Joe, a technician at the local power plant, notices that several turbines had ramp up in cycles during the week. Further investigation by the system engineering team determined that a timed .exe file had been uploaded to the system control console during a visit by international contractors. Which of the following actions should Joe recommend?

A.    Create a VLAN for the SCADA
B.    Enable PKI for the MainFrame
C.    Implement patch management
D.    Implement stronger WPA2 Wireless

Answer: A
Explanation:
VLANs are used for traffic management. VLANs can be used to isolate traffic between network segments. This can be accomplished by not defining a route between different VLANs or by specifying a deny filter between certain VLANs (or certain members of a VLAN). Any network segment that doesn’t need to communicate with another in order to accomplish a work task/function shouldn’t be able to do so.

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QUESTION 11
If a project sponsor wants to know the current status and progress of a project, which of the following is the BEST approach to find this information?

A.    The project sponsor should obtain the current status from team members, put it into a presentation, and present it to the project manager for review.
B.    The scheduler should obtain the current status from team members, apply it to the baseline of the schedule, and run a report
C.    The scheduler should obtain the current status from team members, update the project charter, project management plan, dashboard, and SOW; and then create a status report to provide to the project manager.
D.    The scheduler should obtain the current status from team members, update the risk register, and provide the information to the project champion for review

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which documents does a vendor rely on to commit funding and resources to a project?

A.    SOW
B.    PO
C.    SU
D.    MOU

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A project coordinator logs potential events that can affect project constraints, and then records the results of brainstorm,TM of potential strategies.
Which of the following documents should the project coordinator use?

A.    Risk register
B.    Issue log
C.    Communication plan
D.    Status report

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which of the following describes how a project is related to a program?

A.    A program is a combination of multiple projects.
B.    A program contains an element of the project.
C.    A program is a part of a project.
D.    A program uses half of the project’s budget.

Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which of the following is a key aspect of the Agile project management methodology?

A.    Test-driven
B.    Daily standup meetings
C.    Short project durations
D.    Defined list of requirements

Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which of the following are examples of organizational change? (Choose two.).

A.    Relocation
B.    Scope
C.    Business process
D.    Schedule
E.    Risk event

Answer: AC

QUESTION 17
A vendor has accepted a proposed project from a customer.
Which of the following is MOST likely to be the first document created by the project manager?

A.    Project charter
B.    Project management plan
C.    Project statement of work
D.    Project schedule

Answer: B

QUESTION 18
The PMO is responsible for: (Choose two.),

A.    managing the project plan, scope, risk, and budget.
B.    contributing expertise, deliverables, and estimates of costs.
C.    setting standards and practices for the organization and providing governance.
D.    outlining consequences of non-performance and coordinating between disparate projects
E.    approving funding, developing the project schedule, and gathering high-level requirements

Answer: CD

QUESTION 19
Which of the following describes risk mitigation?

A.    The transfer of the risk to another entity or project inside or outside the organization, along with associated costs
B.    The understanding of the risk with a detailed explanation of how the project intends to address the potential for occurrence
C.    The quantification of the risk in terms of how much the risk could potentially cost the project or parent organization
D.    The weighting or prioritization of the risk against all other identified risks within this project or others associated with it

Answer: B

QUESTION 20
A project manager has noticed poor attendance at status meetings. Which of the following strategies should the project manager use to improve attendance? (Choose two.)

A.    Provide an agenda before the status meeting
B.    Adhere to an agenda and scheduled time
C.    Add non-project-related items to the agenda
D.    Add and discuss new agenda items throughout the meeting.
E.    Discard the action items at the conclusion of the meeting.

Answer: AB

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