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QUESTION 51
You have a server named Server 1.
You enable BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker) on Server 1.
You need to change the password for the Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip.
What should you run on Server1?

A.    Manage-bde.exe
B.    Set-TpmOwnerAuth
C.    bdehdcfg.exe
D.    tpmvscmgr.exe

Answer: B
Explanation:
The Set-TpmOwnerAuthcmdlet changes the current owner authorization value of the Trusted Platform Module (TPM) to a new value.
You can specify the current owner authorization value or specify a file that contains the current owner authorization value. If you do not specify an owner authorization value, the cmdlet attempts to read the value from the registry.
Use the ConvertTo-TpmOwnerAuthcmdlet to create an owner authorization value.
You can specify a new owner authorization value or specify a file that contains the new value.

QUESTION 52
Your company has a main office and two branch offices. The main office is located in Seattle.
The two branch offices are located in Montreal and Miami.
Each office is configured as an Active Directory site.
The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
Network traffic is not routed between the Montreal office and the Miami office.
You implement a Distributed File System (DFS) namespace named \\contoso.com\public.
The namespace contains a folder named Folder1. Folder1 has a folder target in each office.
You need to configure DFS to ensure that users in the branch offices only receive referrals to the target in their respective office or to the target in the main office.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Set the Ordering method of \\contoso.com\public to Random order.
B.    Set the Advanced properties of the folder target in the Seattle office to Last among all targets.
C.    Set the Advanced properties of the folder target in the Seattle office to First among targets of equal cost.
D.    Set the Ordering method of \\contoso.com\public to Exclude targets outside of the client’s site.
E.    Set the Advanced properties of the folder target in the Seattle office to Last among targets of equal cost.
F.    Set the Ordering method of \\contoso.com\public to Lowest cost.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
If you want to prevent branch clients from failing over to a branch server at a different branch site, select the Exclude targets outside of the client site ordering method for each folder with targets, and then set target priority on each hub server’s folder target by selecting the Last among all targets target priority. The result of selecting these two options is as follows:
The Exclude targets outside of the client site setting ensures that only targets within the client’s site will be included in referrals.
The Last among all targets setting overrides the referral ordering method by including the hub server in the referral, even if the hub server is not in the client’s site. (If multiple hub servers are used as folder targets for a given folder, those hub servers will appear last in the referral and be sorted in order of lowest cost after the other targets.)
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc772778%28v=ws.10%29.aspx

QUESTION 53
Hotspot Question
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that has the Network Policy Server server role installed. The domain contains a server named Server2 that is configured for RADIUS accounting.
Server1 is configured as a VPN server and is configured to forward authentication requests to Server2.
You need to ensure that only Server2 contains event information about authentication requests from connections to Server1.

Which two nodes should you configure from the Network Policy Server console?
To answer, select the appropriate two nodes in the answer area.

531

Answer:

532

Explanation:
In the properties of the Network Policy Server logging of rejected and successful authentication requests can be disabled: Using connection request policies can be defined, whether connection requests are processed locally or forwarded to a remote RADIUS server.

QUESTION 54
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. An organizational unit (OU) named OU1 contains 200 client computers that run Windows 8 Enterprise. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 is linked to OU1.
You make a change to GPO1.
You need to force all of the computers in OU1 to refresh their Group Policy settings immediately.
The solution must minimize administrative effort.
Which tool should you use?

A.    Group Policy Object Editor
B.    The Secedit command
C.    Group Policy Management Console (GPMC)
D.    Active Directory Users and Computers

Answer: C
Explanation:
In the previous versions of Windows, this was accomplished by having the user run GPUpdate.exe on their computer.
Starting with Windows Server?2012 and Windows?8, you can now remotely refresh Group Policy settings for all computers in an OU from one central location through the Group Policy Management Console (GPMC). Or you can use the Invoke-GPUpdate cmdlet to refresh Group Policy for a set of computers, not limited to the OU structure, for example, if the computers are located in the default computers container.
Note: Group Policy Management Console (GPMC) is a scriptable Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-in, providing a single administrative tool for managing Group Policy across the enterprise. GPMC is the standard tool for managing Group Policy.
Incorrect:
Not B: Secedit configures and analyzes system security by comparing your current configuration to at least one template.
Reference: Force a Remote Group Policy Refresh (GPUpdate)

QUESTION 55
Hotspot Question
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 has the following BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker) settings:

551

You need to ensure that drive D will unlock automatically when Server1 restarts. What command should you run?
To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

552

Answer:

553
Explanation:
If BitLocker is enabled on the operating system drive, you can admit when you turn on BitLocker for an integrated data drive that the drive is automatically unlocked when the operating system drive is unlocked.
The available parameters are part of the cmdlet Add-BitLockerKeyProtector.
The parameter -ADAccountOrGroupProtector the encryption key can be added to a domain account as a protector.

QUESTION 56
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server1. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to collect the error events from all of the servers on Server1. The solution must ensure that when new servers are added to the domain, their error events are collected automatically on Server1.
Which two actions should you perform?
(Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)

A.    On Server1, create a collector initiated subscription.
B.    On Server1, create a source computer initiated subscription.
C.    From a Group Policy object (GPO), configure the Configure target Subscription Manager setting.
D.    From a Group Policy object (GPO), configure the Configure forwarder resource usage setting.

Answer: BC
Explanation:
To set up a Source-Initiated Subscription with Windows Server 2003/2008 so that events of interest from the Security event log of several domain controllers can be forwarded to an administrative workstation
* Group Policy
The forwarding computer needs to be configured with the address of the server to which the events are forwarded. This can be done with the following group policy setting:
Computer configuration-Administrative templates-Windows components-Event forwarding-
Configure the server address, refresh interval, and issue certificate authority of a target subscription manager.
* Edit the GPO and browse to Computer Configuration | Policies | Administrative Templates
| Windows Components | Event Forwarding – Configure the server address, refresh interval, and issuer certificate authority of a target Subscription Manager

QUESTION 57
Hotspot Question
Your company has two offices. The offices are located in Montreal and Seattle.
The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains servers named Server1 and Server2. Server1 is located in the Seattle office. Server2 is located in the Montreal office. Both servers run Windows Server 2012 R2 and have the Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server role installed.
You need to configure Server2 to download updates that are approved on Server1 only.
What cmdlet should you run?
To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

571

Answer:

572

Explanation:
With the cmdlet Set-WsusServerSynchronization can be determined whether a Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server updates synchronized from Microsoft Update or from an upstream server.
The parameter -UssServerName server name indicates that you want to synchronize from the specified upstream server.
The Parameter -Replica configures the Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) for the replica mode.

QUESTION 58
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 has the File Server Resource Manager role service installed.
Each time a user receives an access-denied message after attempting to access a folder on Server1, an email notification is sent to a distribution list named DL1.
You create a folder named Folder1 on Server1, and then you configure custom NTFS permissions for Folder 1.
You need to ensure that when a user receives an access-denied message while attempting to access Folder1, an email notification is sent to a distribution list named DL2.
The solution must not prevent DL1 from receiving notifications about other access-denied messages.
What should you do?

A.    From File Explorer, modify the Classification tab of Folder1.
B.    From the File Server Resource Manager console, modify the Email Notifications settings.
C.    From the File Server Resource Manager console, set a folder management property.
D.    From File Explorer, modify the Customize tab of Folder1.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Since the is no SMB Share – Advanced option, the other option is to edit folder management properties.
https://social.technet.microsoft.com/Forums/office/en-US/dc0dc85c-467d-4d7a-a881-f513157e9331/please-help-me-about-this-question?forum=winservergen
Also check this:
“When using the email model each of the file shares, you can determine whether access requests to each file share will be received by the administrator, a distribution list that represents the file share owners, or both.
The owner distribution list is configured by using the SMB Share – Advanced file share profile in the New Share Wizard in Server Manager.
You can also use the File Server Resource Manager console to configure the owner distribution list by editing the management properties of the classification properties.”
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj574182.aspx#BKMK_12

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QUESTION 71
Your company has a main office and two branch offices. The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. In the main office, you have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 is configured to use an IPv4 address only.
You need to assign an IPv6 address to Server1. The IP address must be private and routable. Which IPv6 address should you assign to Server1?

A.    fe80:ab32:145c::32cc:401b
B.    ff00:3fff:65df:145c:dca8::82a4
C.    2001:ab32:145c::32cc:401b
D.    fd00:ab32:14:ad88:ac:58:abc2:4

Answer: D

QUESTION 72
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All client computers run Windows 8.
You deploy a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You install a new client-server application named App1 on Server1 and on the client computers. The client computers must use TCP port 6444 to connect to App1 on Server1. Server1 publishes the information of App1 to an intranet server named Server2 by using TCP port 3080.
You need to ensure that all of the client computers can connect to App1.
The solution must ensure that the application can connect to Server2.
Which Windows Firewall rule should you create on Server1?

A.    an inbound rule to allow a connection to TCP port 3080
B.    an outbound rule to allow a connection to TCP port 3080
C.    an outbound rule to allow a connection to TCP port 6444
D.    an inbound rule to allow a connection to TCP port 6444

Answer: D
Explanation:
A. Server2 needs inbound on 3080
B. All ports outbound allowed by default
D. Server1 gets request from Client PC’s it needs a inbound rule for 6444
By default, Windows Firewall with Advanced Security blocks all unsolicited inbound networktraffic, and allows all outbound network traffic. For unsolicited inbound network traffic to reach your computer, you must create an allow rule to permit that type of network traffic. If a network program cannot get access, verify that in the Windows Firewall with Advanced Security snap-in there is an active allow rule for the current profile. To verify that there is an active allow rule, double-click Monitoring and then click Firewall.
If there is no active allow rule for the program, go to the Inbound Rules node and create a new rule for that program. Create either a program rule, or a service rule, or search for a group that applies to the feature and make sure all the rules in the group are enabled. To permit the traffic, you must create a rule for the program that needs to listen for that traffic. If you know the TCP or UDP port numbers required by the program, you can additionally restrict the rule to only those ports, reducing the vulnerability of opening up all ports for the program.
http://social.technet.microsoft.com/wiki/contents/articles/13894.troubleshooting-windows-firewall-with-advanced-security-in-windows-server-2012.aspx

QUESTION 73
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
All user accounts in the sales department reside in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1.
You have a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1. GPO1 is used to deploy a logon script to all of the users in the sales department.
You discover that the logon script does not run when the sales users log on to their computers. You open Group Policy Management as shown in the exhibit.
You need to ensure that the logon script in GPO1 is applied to the sales users.
What should you do?

731

A.    Enforce GPO1.
B.    Modify the link order of GPO1.
C.    Modify the Delegation settings of GPO1.
D.    Enable the link of GPO1.

Answer: D

QUESTION 74
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
The domain contains a server named Server1.
You install the Windows PowerShell Web Access gateway on Server1.
You need to provide administrators with the ability to manage the servers in the domain by using the Windows PowerShell Web Access gateway.
Which two cmdlets should you run on Server1? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Set-WSManQuickConfig
B.    Set-WSManInstance
C.    Add-PswaAuthorizationRule
D.    Set-BCAuthentication
E.    Install-PswaWebApplication

Answer: CE
Explanation:
A. Configures the local computer for remote management.
B. Modifies the management information that is related to a resource.
C. Adds a new authorization rule to the Windows PowerShell Web Access authorization rule set. D. Specifies the BranchCache computer authentication mode.
E. Configures the Windows PowerShell ® Web Access web Application in IIS.
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh849867.aspx
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh849875.aspx
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj592890(v=wps.620).aspx http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh848404(v=wps.620).aspx http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj592894(v=wps.620).aspx

QUESTION 75
You have a server named Server 1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server 1 has the Hyper-V server role installed.
You have fixed-size VHD named Files.vhd.
You need to make the contents in Files.vhd available to several virtual machines. The solution must meet the following requirements:

– Ensure that if the contents are changed on any virtual machine, the changes are not reflected on the other virtual machines.
– Minimize the amount of disk space used.

What should you do?

A.    Create a fixed-size VHDX. Transfer the information from Files.vhd to the new VHDX file.
B.    Convert Files.vhd to a dynamically expanding VHD?
C.    Create a dynamically expanding VHDX. Transfer the information from Files.vhd to the new VHDX file.
D.    Create differencing VHDs that use Files.vhd as the parent disk.

Answer: D
Explanation:
A. A conversion would be needed from VHD to VHDX. Not available to multiple VM’s
B. Single VHD not available to multiple VM’s. Changes wouldn’t be reflected
C. A conversion would be needed from VHD to VHDX. Not available to multiple VM’s
D. Child disk for multiple VM’s with Files.vhd as parent A differencing disk is associated with another virtual hard disk that you select when you create the differencing disk. This means that the disk to which you want to associate the differencing disk must exist first. This virtual hard disk is called the “parent” disk and the differencing disk is the “child” disk.
The parent disk can be any type of virtual hard disk.
The differencing disk stores all changes that would otherwise be made to the parent disk if the differencing disk was not being used. The differencing disk provides an ongoing way to save changes without altering the parent disk.
You can use the differencing disk to store changes indefinitely, as long as there is enough space on the physical disk where the differencing disk is stored. The differencing disk expands dynamically as data is written to it and can grow as large as the maximum size allocated for the parent disk when the parent disk was created.
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc720381(v=ws.10).aspx

QUESTION 76
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains several thousand member servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. All of the computer accounts for the member servers are in an organizational unit (OU) named ServersAccounts. Servers are restarted only occasionally.
You need to identify which servers were restarted during the last two days.
What should you do?

A.    Run dsquery computer and specify the -stalepwd parameter
B.    Run dsquery server and specify the -o parameter.
C.    Run Get-ADComputer and specify the lastlogon property.
D.    Run Get-ADComputer and specify the SearchScope parameter

Answer: C

QUESTION 77
Your network contains three servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The servers are configured as shown in the following table (click Exhibit). Server3 is configured to obtain an IP address automatically.
You need to ensure that Server3 only receives an IP address from Server1.
The IP address must always be the same.
Which two tasks should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

771

A.    Create an exclusion on Server1.
B.    Create a filter on Server1.
C.    Create a reservation on Server2
D.    Create a reservation on Server1
E.    Create a filter on Server2.

Answer: DE
Explanation:
A. Exclude range of IP’s for lease
B. Wrong Server
C. Wrong Sever
D. For clients that require a constant IP address, you can either manually configure a static IP address,or assign a reservation on the DHCP server
E. DHCP Deny Filter at Server2 to exclude MAC address of Server3 MAC address filterEnable and define an explicit allow list. The DHCP server provides DHCP services only to clients whose MACaddresses are in the allow list. Any client that previously received IP addresses is denied address renewal if its MAC address isn’t onthe allow list.
Enable and define an explicit deny list. The DHCP server denies DHCP services only to clients whose MACaddresses are in the deny list.
Any client that previously received IP addresses is denied address renewal if its MAC address is on thedeny list.
Enable and define an allow list and a block list.
The block list has precedence over the allow list. This means that the DHCP server provides DHCPservices only to clients whose MAC addresses are in the allow list, provided that no corresponding matchesare in the deny list.
If a MAC address has been denied, the address is always blocked even if the address is on the allowlist.
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc754537(v=ws.10).aspx http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/magazine/ff521761.aspx
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc779507(v=ws.10).aspx

QUESTION 78
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and a client computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 8. DC1 is configured as a DHCP server as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) Computer1 is configured to obtain an IP address automatically.
You need to ensure that Computer1 can receive an IP address from DC1.
What should you do?

781

A.    Disable the Allow filters.
B.    Disable the Deny filters
C.    Activate Scope [10.1.1.0] Contoso.com.
D.    Authorize dc1.contoso.com.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Red down arrow indicates a unauthorized DHCP server A DHCP server that is a domain controller or a member of an Active Directory domain queries Active Directoryfor the list of authorized servers (identified by IP address). If its own IP address is not in the list of authorized DHCP servers, the DHCP Server service does not completeits startup sequence and automatically shuts down. http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc754792.aspx
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee941131(v=ws.10).aspx http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/gg722802(v=ws.10).aspx
http://pc-addicts.com/server-2012-dhcp-server-role/

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QUESTION 61
Drag and Drop Question
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company.
The company has multiple Microsoft SharePoint Online sites that are shared with external users. Individual documents have also been shared from other Microsoft SharePoint Online sites.
The company recently ended collaboration with a vendor named Contoso, Ltd.
You need to revoke all sharing with external users who log in with contoso.com accounts without affecting sharing with other vendors.
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QUESTION 51
Your company has a hybrid deployment of Office 365. All mailboxes are hosted on Office 365.
All users access their Office 365 mailbox by using a user account that is hosted on-premises.
You need to delete a user account and its associated mailbox.
Which tool should you use?

A.    The Remove-MSOLUser cmdlet
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QUESTION 31
You have an Exchange Server 2016 organization.
All users work from a main office and use Microsoft Outlook 2016.
You recently ran the Microsoft Office 365 Hybrid Configuration Wizard and moved most of the user mailboxes to Exchange Online. A network administrator reports an increase in the amount of outbound SMTP traffic from the network.
You need to reduce the amount of bandwidth utilization for the outbound SMTP traffic.
What should you do?

A.    From the Exchange Server organization, create a Receive connector that uses the IP address of Exchange Online as a remote range.
B.    From the public DNS zone, modify the MX record to point to Exchange Online.
C.    From the public DNS zone, modify the SRV record to point to Exchange Online.
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QUESTION 31
You need to design a logical architecture for the procurement team site.
You implement durable links.
Does the solution meet the goal?

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QUESTION 31
You need to solve the Enterprise Voice issue experienced by Sydney users.
Which normalization rule should you use for mobile numbers?

A.    ^0[45]\((d8))$
B.    ^0([45]\d{6})$
C.    ^0[45]\d({8})$
D.    ^0([45]\d{8})$

Answer: D

QUESTION 32
Hotspot Question
You need to configure media bypass for Tailspin Toys.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate Media Bypass setting from each list in the answer area.

321
Answer:

322

QUESTION 33
You need to implement the Mediation services solution.
What should you do?

A.    Use a collocated Mediation server on the existing Front End Servers in Melbourne and Singapore.
B.    Deploy a new stand-alone Mediation server pool in Melbourne and Singapore.
C.     Deploy a dedicated Mediation server pool at each site.
D.     Deploy a Survivable Branch appliance at each site.

Answer: A

QUESTION 34
You need to troubleshoot and resolve the issue User1 is reporting.
Which action should you perform to resolve the issue?

A.    Troubleshoot the Quality of Service (QoS) configuration.
B.    Verify that User1 has selected the new headset.
C.    Modify the client configuration to not use G.722 codec.
D.    On the public switched telephone network (PSTN) trunk, verify the aLaw/µLaw configuration.

Answer: B

QUESTION 35
Tailspin Toys has completed the configuration for Enterprise Voice.
You need to resolve the issue users are having with the Call Via Work functionality.
What should you do?

A.    Create and apply a Call Via Work policy. Enable the policy.
B.    Create and apply a client policy that enables the CallViaWork option.
C.    Create and apply a voice policy. Enable the CallViaWork option.
D.    Configure Call Via Work on the public switched telephone network (PSTN) trunk that connects to the PBX.
E.    Create and apply a Call Via Work policy that specifies a value for the AdminCallBackNumber option.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-gb/library/dn933908.aspx

QUESTION 36
Tailspin Toys completes the implementation of Call Admission Control (CAC) for the entire network. You need to configure the Enterprise Voice policies for executives.
What should you do?

A.    Enable the bandwidth policy override feature in the user level voice policy.
B.    Enable the bandwidth policy override feature in the user level client policy.
C.    Enable the bandwidth policy override feature in the machine level group policy object.
D.    Enable the bandwidth policy override feature in the user level group policy object.

Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Drag and Drop Question
You need to configure Tailspin Toy’s desktop clients and phone edition clients to apply Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP) markings.
What are the minimum actions you need to do? To answer, drag the appropriate configuration option to the client. Each action may be used once, more than once or nor at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
371

Answer:
372

QUESTION 38
Drag and Drop Question
You need to determine the number of lines that are required for the new public switched telephone network (PSTN) connections.
How many lines are required for each location? To answer, drag the appropriate number of line to the correct location. Each number may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Additionally, you may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
381
Answer:
382

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QUESTION 21
What are the two possible methods of disaster recovery for VMware Mirage endpoints? (Choose two.)

A.    Restore the recovery partition to a previous CVD snapshot on an existing device.
B.    Restore files or the entire desktop to a previous CVD snapshot on an existing device.
C.    Restore the hard drive of an existing or a replacement device.
D.    Restore the CVD snapshot to the primary and recover the files.

Answer: BC
Explanation:
https://www.vmware.com/pdf/mirage-administrators-guide-4.pdf (p.199)

QUESTION 22
Which are two custom setup options when installing VMware Horizon Agent on a master image? (Choose two.)

A.    Windows Media Multimedia Redirection
B.    USB Redirection
C.    VMware Horizon Instant Clone Agent
D.    Unity Touch

Answer: AB

QUESTION 23
What are three valid options for writable volumes? (Choose three.)

A.    Limit the attachment of users’ writables to specific computers.
B.    Attach volume on next login or reboot.
C.    Delay writable creation for group/OU members until they log in.
D.    Attach volume immediately.
E.    Prevent user login if the writable is in use on another computer.

Answer: ACE
Explanation:
http://pubs.vmware.com/appvolumes-210/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.appvolumes.user.doc%2FGUID-BF446318-00B8-4D3A-A7DE-AF21604FE3DB.html

QUESTION 24
One of the datastores containing a manual desktop pool is running out of disk space and an administrator adds a second datastore.
Which operation should the administrator perform to resolve the issue?

A.    Rebalance
B.    Recompose
C.    Storage vMotion
D.    Refresh

Answer: C

QUESTION 25
How many ESXi hosts may receive vSphere Desktop licenses if three 100-seat View Standard bundles are purchased?

A.    An unlimited number of ESXi hosts.
B.    Up to 150 dual-socket ESXi hosts.
C.    Up to three dual-socket ESXi hosts.
D.    None, Horizon Standard does not include vSphere Desktop licenses.

Answer: B

QUESTION 26
What are two valid Directory sync intervals in Identity Manager 2.x? (Choose two.)

A.    Once per month
B.    Once per week
C.    Every hour
D.    Every minute

Answer: BC

QUESTION 27
Which Database Server is supported for View Composer and for the Events Databases?

A.    Microsoft SQL Server 2008 SP4
B.    Oracle 11g Release 2
C.    Microsoft SQL Server 2014
D.    vPostgres Database

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://pubs.vmware.com/horizon-view-60/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.horizon-view.installation.doc%2FGUID-5B2266B8-EA3C-4F49-BABB-2D0B91DE6C1D.html

QUESTION 28
What is the minimum user accounts privilege requirement when installing App Volumes 2.x?

A.    Member of the Local Administrators group.
B.    Member of the Domain Users group.
C.    Member of the Domain Admins group.
D.    Member of the Local Power Users group.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.vmware.com/content/dam/digitalmarketing/vmware/en/pdf/techpaper/vmware-app-volumes-deployment-considerations.pdf

QUESTION 29
During a new pool creation, an administrator notices that the virtual machines are stuck in the Provisioning state during cloning.
What is the most effective way to correct this issue?

A.    Delete the virtual machines and clone them again.
B.    Change the snapshot on the pool to a newly-created one.
C.    Disable the pool, save the changes, then enable the pool again.
D.    Use vdmadmin 璿 to delete the stuck virtual machines.

Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which three configuration consoles are available in the VMware Identity Manager administrator? (Choose three.)

A.    Identity Manager Admin Console
B.    Connector Services Admin
C.    Policy Management Console
D.    Application Management Console
E.    Appliance Configurator

Answer: ABE
Explanation:
http://pubs.vmware.com/vidm-24/topic/com.vmware.ICbase/PDF/vidm-24-install.pdf

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QUESTION 21
Which two statements are true regarding Layer 2 VPNs? (Choose two.)

A.    Layer 2 VPNs are used to securely extend Ethernet segments over an untrusted medium.
B.    The NSX Edge Service Gateway can form a Layer 2 VPN with a standards-compliant physical appliance.
C.    The Distributed Router can form a Layer 2 VPN to another Distributed Router or NSX Edge Service Gateway.
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QUESTION 21
Which two encryption keys does the host use when encrypting virtual machine files? (Choose two.)

A.    Public Key Infrastructure Encryption Key (PKI)
B.    Master Encryption Key (MEK)
C.    Data Encryption Key (DEK)
D.    Key Encryption Key (KEK)

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QUESTION 21
To reduce the attack vectors for a virtual machine, which two settings should an administrator set to false? (Choose two.)

A.    ideX:Y.present
B.    serial.present
C.    ideX:Y.enabled
D.    serial.enabled

Answer: AB
Reference: http://jackiechen.org/2012/10/05/vsphere-5-0-security-hardening-recommended-vm-settings-configure-script/

QUESTION 22
Which two groups of settings should be reviewed when attempting to increase the security of virtual machines (VMs)? (Choose two.)

A.    Disable hardware devices
B.    Disable unexposed features
C.    Disable VMtools devices
D.    Disable VM Template features

Answer: AB
Explanation:
Make sure you review hardware devices and disable the unnecessary ones. Also disable unexposed features before increasing virtual machines security.

QUESTION 23
Which password meets ESXi 6.x host password requirements?

A.    8kMVnn2x!
B.    zNgtnJBA2
C.    Nvgt34kn44
D.    !b74wr

Answer: A
Explanation:
A valid password requires a mix of upper and lower case letters, digits, and other characters. You can use a 7-character long password with characters from at least three of these four classes, or a 6-character long password containing characters from all the classes. A password that begins with an upper case letter and ends with a numerical digit does not count towards the number of character classes used. It is recommended that the password does not contain the username.
A passphrase requires at least 3 words, can be 8 to 40 characters long, and must contain enough different characters.
Reference:
http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do?language=en_US&cmd=displayKC&externalId=1012033

QUESTION 24
An administrator would like to use a passphrase for their ESXi 6.x hosts which has these characteristics:

– Minimum of 21 characters
– Minimum of 2 words

Which advanced options must be set to allow this passphrase configuration to be used?

A.    retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 7, 21, 7 passphrase=2
B.    retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 21, 7, 7 passphrase=2
C.    retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 2, 21, 7
D.    retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 21, 21, 2

Answer: B
Explanation:
To force a specific password complexity and disable all others, replace the number with the word with disabled. For example, to force passwords containing characters from all four-character classes: password requisite /lib/security/$ISA/pam_passwdqc.so retry=3 min= disabled,disabled,disabled,disabled,7
Reference:
http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do?language=en_US&cmd=displayKC&externalId=1012033

QUESTION 25
Which Advanced Setting should be created for the vCenter Server to change the expiration policy of the vpxuser password?

A.    VimPasswordExpirationInDays
B.    VimExpirationPasswordDays
C.    VimPassExpirationInDays
D.    VimPasswordRefreshDays

Answer: A
Explanation:
vCenter Server creates the vpxuser account on each ESX/ESXi host that it manages. The password for each vpxuser account is auto-generated when an ESX/ESXi host is added. The password is updated by default every 30 days.
To modify default password settings:
Connect vSphere Client to vCenter Server.
Click Administration > vCenter Server Settings > Advanced Settings. Scroll to the parameter VirtualCenter.VimPasswordExpirationInDays and change the value from the default.
Reference:
http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do?language=en_US&cmd=displayKC&externalId=1016736

QUESTION 26
An administrator has been instructed to secure existing virtual machines in vCenter Server.
Which two actions should the administrator take to secure these virtual machines? (Choose two.)

A.    Disable native remote management services
B.    Restrict Remote Console access
C.    Use Independent Non-Persistent virtual disks
D.    Prevent use of Independent Non-Persistent virtual disks

Answer: BD
Reference: http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/techpaper/VMW-TWP-vSPHR-SECRTY-HRDNG-USLET-101-WEB-1.pdf (page 11, see the tables)

QUESTION 27
An administrator has recently audited the environment and found numerous virtual machines with sensitive data written to the configuration files.
To prevent this in the future, which advanced parameter should be applied to the virtual machines?

A.    isolation.tools.setinfo.disable = true
B.    isolation.tools.setinfo.enable = true
C.    isolation.tools.setinfo.disable = false
D.    isolation.tools.setinfo.enable = false

Answer: A
Explanation:
It is configured on a per-VM basis. You can increase the guest operating system variable memory limit if large amounts of custom information are being stored in the configuration file. You can also prevent guests from writing any name-value pairs to the configuration file. To do so, use the following setting, and set it to ‘true’.

QUESTION 28
Which two statements are correct regarding vSphere certificates? (Choose two.)

A.    ESXi host upgrades do not preserve the SSL certificate and reissue one from the VMware Certificate Authority (VMCA).
B.    ESXi host upgrades preserve the existing SSL certificate.
C.    ESXi hosts have assigned SSL certificates from the VMware Certificate Authority (VMCA) during install.
D.    ESXi hosts have self-signed SSL certificates by default.

Answer: BC
Explanation:
Of course, ESXi host upgrades preserve existing SSL certificate and it also have assigned SSL certificates from VMCA during the installation process.

QUESTION 29
Which three options are available for replacing vCenter Server Security Certificates? (Choose three.)

A.    Replace with Certificates signed by the VMware Certificate Authority.
B.    Make VMware Certificate Authority an Intermediate Certificate Authority.
C.    Do not use VMware Certificate Authority, provision your own Certificates.
D.    Use SSL Thumbprint mode.
E.    Replace all VMware Certificate Authority issued Certificates with self-signed Certificates.

Answer: ABC
Explanation:
There are three options for replace vCenter server security certificates. You can replace it with certificates signed by VMware certificate authority; you can make the VMCA an intermediate certificate authority. Likewise, you can provision your own certificates.

QUESTION 30
When attempting to log in with the vSphere Web Client, users have reported the error:

Incorrect Username/Password

The administrator has configured the Platform Services Controller Identity Source as:

– Type. Active Directory as an LDAP Server
– Domain: vmware.com
– Alias: VMWARE
– Default Domain: Yes

Which two statements would explain why users cannot login to the vSphere Web Client? (Choose two.)

A.    Users are typing the password incorrectly.
B.    Users are in a forest that has 1-way trust.
C.    Users are in a forest that has 2-way trust.
D.    Users are logging into vCenter Server with incorrect permissions.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
The possible explanation for this error might be that the users are typing password incorrectly or they are in a forest with has only 1-way trust. You need 2-way trust to get the credentials accepted.

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QUESTION 21
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A.    FAT32
B.    OVF
C.    VMDK
D.    NTFS

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QUESTION 1
A process owner has been identified with an “I” in a RACI matrix. Which one of the following would be expected of them?

A.    Be accountable for the outcome of an activity
B.    Perform an activity
C.    Be kept up-to-date on the progress of an activity
D.    Manage an activity

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following are objectives of service level management?

1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of FT services to be provided
2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided
3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction
4: Identifying possible future markets that the service provider could operate in

A.    1, 2 and 3 only
B.    1 and 2 only
C.    1, 2 and 4 only
D.    All of the above

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which one of the following do technology metrics measure?

A.    Components
B.    Processes
C.    The end-to-end service
D.    Customer satisfaction

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which process includes business, service and component sub-processes?

A.    Capacity management
B.    Incident management
C.    Service level management
D.    Financial management

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?

A.    Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages
B.    Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services
C.    Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the
service designs that are produced
D.    Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service known as?

A.    Outcome
B.    Incident
C.    Change
D.    Problem

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?

A.    Change management
B.    Service portfolio management
C.    Supplier management
D.    Continual service improvement

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation?

1. Local service desk
2. Virtual service desk
3. IT help desk
4. Follow the sun

A.    1, 2 and 4 only
B.    2, 3 and 4 only
C.    1, 3 and 4 only
D.    1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What are the categories of event described in the UIL service operation book?

A.    Informational, scheduled, normal
B.    Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C.    Informational, warning, exception
D.    Warning, reactive, proactive

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management?

A.    Employers
B.    Stakeholders
C.    Regulators
D.    Accreditors

Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
You are a system administrator responsible for maintaining Microsoft Dynamics 365 at your company.
Management wants a new application built that allows them to manage requests for vendors.
You need to use the app designer to build the new application on Microsoft Dynamics 365.
What are three items that can be configured in the app designer? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.    a site map for the new app
B.    a business rule for the new app
C.    a role to be used by the new app
D.    a dashboard for the new app
E.    a workflow for the new app

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 2
You are a system administrator for a Microsoft Dynamics 365 and Microsoft SharePoint online environment.
You need to prevent a user from accessing Microsoft SharePoint while in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
What should you do?

A.    Change the security settings for SharePoint Site on the users security role.
B.    Change the security settings for Document Generation on the user’s security role.
C.    Change the security settings for Enable or Disable User on the user’s security role.
D.    Change the security settings for Document Template on the user’s security role.

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
In which scenario is the Import Data Wizard method recommended for Microsoft Dynamics 365?

A.    a large company with data on-premises that currently uses Microsoft Dynamics AX and has it staged in Microsoft Azure
B.    a small company that currently uses Microsoft Dynamics 365, Business edition and wants to migrate to Enterprise edition
C.    a large company with Customer Relationship Management (CRM) application data that is stored on the same data center as Microsoft Dynamics 365
D.    a small company with data on-premises that has never used a Customer Relationship Management (CRM) application

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://www.microsoft.com/en-US/dynamics/crm-customer-center/import-accounts-leads-or-other-data.aspx

QUESTION 4
You are the technology director for a large company that plans to implement Microsoft Dynamics 365.
You are researching the type of licensing that is required for Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Which Microsoft Dynamics 365 App is only available with Microsoft Dynamics 365 Plan 2?

A.    Customer Service
B.    Operations
C.    Sales
D.    Field Service

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/pricing

QUESTION 5
You need to deploy a new instance, which will be used to conduct training for users for an indefinite period.
You need to be able to deploy full copies of the production environment into this new.
What should you do?

A.    Create a production instance in a new tenant
B.    Create a trial in a new tenant
C.    Create a production instance in the same tenant.
D.    Create a sandbox instance in the same tenant.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn722373.aspx

QUESTION 6
You are a system administrator for an organization with a Microsoft Dynamics 365 deployment (hosted in a European data center) and Active Directory Federated Services on-premises. Your organization acquires a new company in the US that is using Microsoft Dynamics 365 Online in its own tenant.
The US company can continue to use their Microsoft Dynamics 365 Online instance as is.
All users need to be on the European Active Directory, but they need to use an instance close to them.
What should you do?

A.    Migrate the US instance to the European tenant, and set the instance the US region.
B.    Keep the US tenant and federate Active Directory with both the US and European teanants.
C.    Keep the US tenant, and federate Active Directory with only the European tenant.
D.    Migrate the US instance to the European tenant, and set the instance to the European region.

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You are a system administrator.
Microsoft schedules an update for your instance of Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Which two scenarios will occur? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.    If you have not approved the update before the scheduled date, the instance will become inactive until approved or rescheduled.
B.    If you have approved the update, the instance will update on the scheduled date.
C.    The instance will update on the scheduled date, regardless of approval.
D.    If you have not approved the update, the instance will not update on the scheduled date.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn308237.aspx

QUESTION 8
You are an administrator for an organization that uses Microsoft Dynamics 365 and Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook.
Your users have varying requirements for which data they need to take offline.
You need to ensure that your users have access to the correct data offline.
What should you do?

A.    Instruct users on how to configure the offline filter.
B.    Instruct users on how to configure the synchronization filters.
C.    Create one set of offline filters and distribute those.
D.    Instruct users on how to configure the synchronized fields.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics/crm-customer-center/choose-records-to-work-with-offline-in-dynamics-365-for-outlook.aspx

QUESTION 9
You are in the initial planning phase of a Microsoft Dynamics 365 implementation. The customer wants to use the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook.
The customer is about to make a decision on whether Microsoft Exchange and Microsoft Dynamics 365 should be on-premises, online, or a hybrid.
You need to advise the customer on how their decision affects their ability to use the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook,
What should you tell them?

A.    The Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook is online only, so both Microsoft Exchange and Microsoft Dynamics 365 must be online.
B.    The Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook requires Microsoft Exchange to be online, but Microsoft Dynamics 365 can be on-premises.
C.    The Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook requires Microsoft Dynamics 365 to be online, but Microsoft Exchange can be on-premises.
D.    The Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook supports both online-to-online, on-premises to on-premises, and hybrid environments.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn946901.aspx

QUESTION 10
You are a deployment manager for Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Your company decides to implement Microsoft OneNote, and you need to integrate it to Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Which two steps should you take to perform this integration? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Turn on Microsoft OneNote integration.
B.    Turn on Microsoft OneDrive for Business integration.
C.    Turn on Microsoft Office 365 Groups integration.
D.    Turn on server-based Microsoft SharePoint integration.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics/crm-customer-center/set-up-onenote-integration-in-dynamics-365.aspx

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QUESTION 1
What information is included in the DHCP snooping database? (Choose two.)

A.    client MAC address
B.    DHCP server address
C.    DHCP options
D.    VLAN

Answer: AD
Explanation:
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QUESTION 2
Which three statements are correct about the voice VLAN feature? (Choose three.)

A.    It allows the access port to accept tagged voice and untagged data packets.
B.    It allows you to apply independent CoS actions to data and voice packets.
C.    It can be used with LLDP-MED to dynamically assign the VLAN ID value to IP phones.
D.    It allows trunk ports to accept tagged voice and untagged data packets.
E.    It must use the same VLAN ID as data traffic on a defined interface.

Answer: ABC
Explanation:
A (not D): The Voice VLAN feature in EX-series switches enables access ports to accept both data (untagged) and voice (tagged) traffic and separate that traffic into different VLANs.
B: To assign differentiated priority to Voice traffic, it is recommended that class of service (CoS) is configured prior to enabling the voice VLAN feature. Typically, voice traffic is treated with a higher priority than common user traffic. Without differentiated treatment through CoS, all traffic, regardless of the type, is subject to the same delay during times of congestion.
C: In conjunction with Voice VLAN, you can utilize Link Layer Discovery Protocol Media Endpoint Discovery (LLDP-MED) to provide the voice VLAN ID and 802.1p values to the attached IP phones. This dynamic method associates each IP phone with the appropriate voice VLAN and assigns the necessary802.1p values, which are used by CoS, to differentiate service for voice traffic within a network.
https://kb.juniper.net/InfoCenter/index?page=content&id=KB11062&actp=search

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are correct about aggregate routes in the Junos OS? (Choose two.)

A.    An active route can contribute only to a single aggregate route.
B.    Only one aggregate route can be configured for each destination prefix.
C.    An aggregate route has a default next hop of an IP address.
D.    An aggregate route always shows as active in the routing table.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
A route can contribute only to a single aggregate route.
You can configure only one aggregate route for each destination prefix.

QUESTION 4
Which device is used to separate collision domains?

A.    switch
B.    router
C.    hub
D.    firewall

Answer: A
Explanation:
Modern wired networks use a network switch to reduce or eliminate collisions.
By connecting each device directly to a port on the switch, either each port on a switch becomes its own collision domain (in the case of half duplex links) or the possibility of collisions is eliminated entirely in the case of full duplex links.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Collision_domain

QUESTION 5
What are two types of IS-IS PDUs? (Choose two.)

A.    open PDU
B.    VRF PDU
C.    hello PDU
D.    link-state PDU

Answer: CD
Explanation:
IS-IS hello (IIH) PDUs broadcast to discover the identity of neighboring IS-IS systems and to determine whether the neighbors are Level 1 or Level 2 intermediate systems. Link-state PDUs contain information about the state of adjacencies to neighboring IS-IS systems.
http://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos15.1/topics/concept/is-is-routing-overview.html

QUESTION 6
What are three extended BGP communities? (Choose three.)

A.    Origin: 172.16.100.100:100
B.    domain-id: 192.168.1.1:555
C.    extend:454:350
D.    172.16.90.100:888
E.    target:65000:65000

Answer: ABE
Explanation:
The BGP extended communities attribute format has three fields:
type: administrator: assigned-number. type is the type of extended community and can be either the 16-bit numerical identifier of a specific BGP extended community or one of these types: origin– Identifies where the route originated.
domain-id– Identifies the OSPF domain from which the route originated.
target– Identifies the destination to which the route is going.
bandwidth– Sets up the bandwidth extended community. Specifying link bandwidth allows you to distribute traffic unequally among different BGP paths.
rt-import– Identifies the route to install in the routing table.
src -as– Identifies the AS from which the route originated.
You must specify an AS number, not an IP address.
https://www.juniper.net/techpubs/en_US/junos12.3/topics/usage-guidelines/policy-defining-bgp-communities-and-extended-communities-for-use-in-routing-policy-match-conditions.html

QUESTION 7
Which two statements are true about DIS elections in IS-IS? (Choose two.)

A.    If a priority tie occurs, the router with the lower subnetwork point of attachment (SNPA) value becomes the DIS.
B.    If a priority tie occurs, the router with the higher subnetwork point of attachment (SNPA) value becomes the DIS.
C.    The router with the lower priority value becomes the DIS.
D.    The router with the higher priority value becomes the DIS.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
In IS-IS, deterministic DIS election makes the possibility of predicting the router that will be elected as DIS from the same set of routers.
The router advertising the numerically highest priority wins, with numerically highest MAC address, also called a Subnetwork Point of Attachment (SNPA), breaking the tie.
https://kb.juniper.net/kb/documents/public/junos/StudyGuides/Ch4_from_JNCIP_studyguide.pdf

QUESTION 8
Host-1 was recently added in the network and is attached to ge-0/0/10 on Switch-A.
Host-1 is powered on and has its interface configured with default Layer 2 settings and an IP address on the 172.17.12.0/24 IP subnet.
Host-1’s MAC address is not shown in Switch-A’s bridging table.
What are three explanations for this state? (Choose three.)

A.    The ge-0/0/10 interface is configured as an access port.
B.    The ge-0/0/10 interface is not operationally or administratively up.
C.    The ge-0/0/10 interface does not have an associated IRB.
D.    The ge-0/0/10 interface has not received any traffic from Host-1.
E.    The ge-0/0/10 interface is configured as a trunk port.

Answer: BCD
Explanation:
B: MAC learning messages received with errors include:
Interface down–The MAC address is learned on an interface that is down.
C: To configure the MAC address of an IRB interface Etc.
http://www.juniper.net/techpubs/en_US/junos15.1/topics/reference/command-summary/show-ethernet-switching-statistics-mac-learning-ex-series.html
https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos16.1/topics/example/example-configuring-mac-address-of-an-irb-interface.html

QUESTION 9
Router-1 and Router-2 need to connect through the Internet using a tunneling technology.
Hosts that are connected to Router-1 and Router-2 will be sending traffic up to 1500 bytes.
The maximum segment size is supported across the path is 1520 bytes.
Which tunneling technology will allow this communication to take place?

A.    GRE tunnel
B.    IPsec VPN transport mode
C.    IPsec VPN tunnel mode
D.    IP-IP tunnel

Answer: D
Explanation:
Difference Between GRE and IP-IP Tunnel. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) and IP-in-IP (IPIP) are two rather similar tunneling mechanisms which are often confused. In terms of less overhead, the GRE header is 24 bytes and an IP header is 20 bytes.

QUESTION 10
What are two interarea OSPF LSA types? (Choose two.)

A.    Type-4 ASBR summary LSAs
B.    Type 3 summary LSAs
C.    Type 1 router LSAs
D.    Type 2 network LSAs

Answer: AB

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