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QUESTION 21
You are a developer for an Independent Software Vendor (ISV).

You need to create new extended data types in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations.

What are two best practices for extending a series of data types?Each correct answer presents acomplete solution.

A.    An EDT should be created for each atomic entity being utilized.
B.    Subtypes are not required for EDTs that do not contain any property changes.
C.    You cannot extend the recID or tableID system data types.
D.    You cannot use EDTs if one of them is a member of the parent extended data.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
Whenever possible, you will want to use EDTs and EDTs should be created for each atomic entity in thesituation that your application is modeling.You should only create subtypes when they are needed. In other words, when you are creating an EDTthat extends another EDT, but you aren’t changing any of its properties, you probably do not need tocreate a new subtype.

QUESTION 22
You are installing Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Retail at a store location.

You want to share a drawer between point-of-sale (POS) clients.

To achieve this goal, which component should you install on the computer connected to the cash drawer?

A.    Hardware Station
B.    Cloud POS
C.    Commerce Runtime (CRT)
D.    Retail Server

Answer: A
Explanation:
Retail hardware station provides services that enable retail POS clients and peripherals such as printers, cash drawers, and payment devices to communicate with retail server.

QUESTION 23
You manage a Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Retail environment.

You are preparing to deploy packages.
Which two types of items can you deploy as a package? Each correct answer presents a completesolution.

A.    a binary hotfix to the Application Object Server (AOS) runtime components
B.    an updated Dynamics 365 for Retail customization package
C.    a Microsoft Dynamics 365 Language Pack
D.    a Retail Software Development Kit (SDK)

Answer: AB
Explanation:
A deployable package is a unit of deployment that can be applied in any Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Retailenvironment. A deployable package can be a binary hotfix to the Application Object Server (AOS) runtimecomponents, an updated Dynamics 365 for Retail customization package, or a new Microsoft Dynamics365 for Retail customization/application module package.

QUESTION 24
You are adding a relationship to a table.

Which two best practices should you follow? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Define a navigational relationship; the validate property on the relation should be set to “Yes” for easier navigation.
B.    Set the validate property to No when you are using navigational relationships so that the application is easy to navigate.
C.    Name the relationship with an “_rel” suffix in order to differentiate it from the index that is appended with”_idx”.
D.    Define the relationship to a foreign key on the child table by setting the validate property on the relation to Yes.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 25
What are two benefits of applying a form pattern to a form? Each correct answer presents part of thesolution.

A.    ensures data consistency by enforcing common relationship patterns between datasources
B.    provides default values for many properties on controls
C.    enforces a consistent style so that the forms a user encounters are immediately recognizable
D.    allows a developer to create many delivered forms from a base form

Answer: BC
Explanation:
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Enterprise Edition, makes development easier byproviding a guided experience for applying patterns to forms to ensure they are correct and consistent.
They help validate forms and control structures and the use of controls incertain places. Using patternsalso ensures that each new form encountered by a user is immediatelyrecognizable in appearance andfunction. Form patterns can provide many default control properties, which leads to a more guideddevelopment experience.

QUESTION 26
You are an Independent Software Vendor (ISV) developer and are reviewinganother developer’s changesto a project.

You run the Best Practices Fixer on the project. The following error message appears in the error list in Visual Studio for the display menu item XYZ:

BP Rule: [BPErrorMenuItemNotCoveredByPrivilege]:Path: [dynamics://MenuItemDisplay/
XYZ]:BPErrorMenuItemNotCoveredByPrivilege: ‘AxMenuItemDisplay’ ‘XYZ’ is not covered by privilege: XYZ
(USR) [YourModule]

Based on this error message, which recommendation should you make to the developer?

A.    Add the XYZ display menu item to the Entry Points of a new or existing Security Privilege in the Your Module model.
B.    Set the Create Permissions and Delete Permissions properties on the XYZ display menu item.
C.    Add the XYZ display menu item to the Entry Points of an extension of an existing Security Privilege in the Application Suite model.
D.    Set the Linked Permission Type property to Form, and the Linked Permission Object property to thename of the form on the XYZ display menu item.

Answer: A
Explanation:
BPErrorMenuItemNotCoveredByPrivilege: Only the system administrator role can access this form

QUESTION 27
You are working in a Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations environment that has an existingform named ModifyData and a display menu item named ModifyData1, which opens ModifyData. Youcreate a second menu item named ModifyData2 that also opens ModifyData.

Aprivilegenamed ModifyData1View has the ModifyData1 menu item as an entry point with Read access.

There is also a privilege named ModifyData1Maintain that has the ModifyData1 menu item as an entry point, with the Access Level property set to Delete. You create a new privilege named ModifyData2View and add the ModifyData2 menu item as an entry point. You set the Access Level property to Read on the ModifyData2 entry point.

You need to create a new duty named DataManager so that a role with this duty can delete data from ModifyData when accessed through ModifyData1 and read data on the ModifyData form when accessedthrough ModifyData2.

What should you do to achieve this goal?

A.    Grant the ModifyData1Maintain privilege and the ModifyData2View privilege to the DataManager duty.
B.    Grant the ModifyData2View privilege to the DataManager duty.
C.    Grant the ModifyData1Maintain privilege to the DataManager duty.
D.    Grant the ModifyData1View privilege and the ModifyData2View privilege to the DataManager duty.

Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Which of the Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations application stack provides financial and human resources management functionality?

A.    Application Suite
B.    Application Object
C.    Application Foundation
D.    Application Platform

Answer: A
Explanation:
Most of the functionality we associate with Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations is added in the Application Suite. Specific examples include the financial management, inventory or warehouse management, human resources management or the fleet management scenario.

QUESTION 29
You are creating a custom lookup form to look up records in a table.

You want to provide multiple views of the table on the form.

Which form pattern should you apply?

A.    Details Master with Standard Tabs
B.    Simple List
C.    Lookup with Tabs
D.    Dialog – Advanced Selection

Answer: C
Explanation:
Lookup basic?This is the basic Lookup pattern that has just one list or tree, and also optional customfilters and actions.
Lookup w/tabs?This Lookup pattern is used when more than oneview of the lookup can be madeavailable to the user. Tab captions aren’t shown. Instead, the tab is selected through a combo box.
Lookup w/preview?This more advanced Lookup pattern enables a preview of the current record in thelookup grid.

QUESTION 30
You are writing a method to update the Customer reference field on a Sales order table record. You begin by writing the following code:

class ExampleClass
{
/// <summary>
/// Update the Customer reference field on the Sales orders table.
/// </summary>
/// <param name = “_salesId”>
/// Sales order to update
/// </param>
/// <param name = “_customerRef”>
/// Updated Customer reference value
/// </param>
public static void updateSalesTableCustomerReference(SalesId _salesId,
CustRef _customerRef)
{
SalesTable salesTable;
}
}

Which statement will complete the method?

A.    salesTable = SalesTable::find(_salesId);
salesTable.CustomerRef = _customerRef;
salesTable.update();
B.    update_recordset salesTable
setting CustomerRef=_customerRef
where salesTable.salesid==_salesId;
C.    salesTable = SalesTable::find(_salesId, true); salesTable.CustomerRef = _customerRef;
salesTable.update();
D.    update_recordset salesTable
setting SalesId = _salesId
where salesTable.CustomerRef == _customerRef;

Answer: C

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QUESTION 21
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QUESTION 21
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You need to establish a price.
Which two actions should you perform to configure Microsoft Dynamics AX Distribution and Trade for this task? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

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QUESTION 41
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QUESTION 41
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QUESTION 21
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QUESTION 21
What is called the percentage of valid subjects that are falsely rejected by a Biometric Authentication system?

A.    False Rejection Rate (FRR) or Type I Error
B.    False Acceptance Rate (FAR) or Type II Error
C.    Crossover Error Rate (CER)
D.    True Rejection Rate (TRR) or Type III Error

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A.    Conduct web server load tests.
B.    Conduct static code analysis.
C.    Conduct fuzzing attacks.
D.    Conduct SQL injection and XSS attacks.

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A.    Conduct web server load tests.
B.    Conduct static code analysis.
C.    Conduct fuzzing attacks.
D.    Conduct SQL injection and XSS attacks.

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QUESTION 21
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QUESTION 61
When an 802.11 client roams what device decides when to move the client to another AP?

A.    Aruba AP
B.    Aruba controller
C.    Client
D.    Radius Server
E.    Router

Answer: C

QUESTION 62
A customer has a remote AP deployment, where each remote AP has an IPSEC VPN tunnel with L2TP to the controller. 1 of the remote APs is stuck in the user table and hasn’t yet transitioned to the AP active table in the controller. The customer suspects that the AP is not setting up its VPN connection successfully. Which of the following commands might be useful in troubleshooting this? (Choose three.)

A.    Logging level debugging security process localdb
B.    Logging level debugging security process l2tp
C.    Logging level debugging security process dot1x
D.    Logging level debugging security process crypto
E.    Logging level debugging security process vpn

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 63
A client Roams from one Local controller-1 to another Local controller-2. The controllers are in different subnets and L3 Mobility is enabled. How is the client traffic sent back to Local-controller-1?

A.    IP-IP tunneled
B.    FTP
C.    Multicast
D.    L2 GRE Tunnel
E.    Routed locally

Answer: D

QUESTION 64
Which of the following statements is true of Spectrum Mode?

A.    No licenses are required to run an AP in Spectrum mode
B.    Spectrum mode can only be configured for one AP at a time
C.    An AP can be in spectrum mode for both 2.4 and 5G bands at the same time
D.    An AP can be placed in Spectrum Mode via the Spectrum Profile
E.    Spectrum mode can be configured from the GUI under AP installation

Answer: C

QUESTION 65
The screen captures above show the 802.1X authentication profile and AAA profile settings for a VAP. If machine authentication fails and user authentication passes, which role will be assigned?

651

652

A.    employee
B.    guest
C.    denyall
D.    logon
E.    no role is assigned

Answer: B

QUESTION 66
Referring to the above screen capture, on which controller can you add an administrative user and assign a controller management role?

661

A.    Controller 10.1.10.100 only
B.    Controller 10.1.20.100 and 10.254.1.3 only
C.    All three Controllers
D.    must be done in the RADIUS server
E.    Controller 10.254.1.101 only

Answer: C

QUESTION 67
Which command will show all client association history?

A.    show mobile trail current (ip address)
B.    show ip mobile trail (ip address)
C.    show ap client status (mac address)
D.    show current client ip (ip address)
E.    show client ip (ip address) mobility

Answer: B

QUESTION 68
What is the total number of charts you can simultaneously monitor in a spectrum dashboard?

A.    3
B.    4
C.    8
D.    9
E.    12

Answer: E

QUESTION 69
Which is a Device Specific Attribute that can be evaluated in a user derivation rule?

A.    user login name
B.    authentication server
C.    location by AP Name
D.    controller Loopback address
E.    controller IP

Answer: C

QUESTION 70
The Controller wizard enables which of the following controller clock configurations?(Choose three)

A.    NTP to a time server
B.    Set time zone
C.    Daylight savings time
D.    Only GMT can be configured
E.    Manual configuration of date and time

Answer: ABE

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QUESTION 21
Which three options are actions to realize the benefits? (Choose three.)

A.    Progress should be measured once the solution is deployed.
B.    Should take into account the relationship with the stakeholder.
C.    Should focus on measurable results.
D.    May be based on assumptions and risks.
E.    Include actions on the way, plus those already identified.

Answer: CDE

QUESTION 22
Which three options are stages of the Benefit Realization Management? (Choose three.)

A.    Benefits accounting.
B.    Benefits identification.
C.    Benefits roles.
D.    Benefit measurement, ranking and prioritization.
E.    Benefits monitoring and review.

Answer: BDE

QUESTION 23
Which of the following describes a Viewpoint?

A.    A perspective expressed by one or more managers who share the same or similar role.
B.    A perspective expressed by one or more customers who may or may not share the same or similar role.
C.    The perspective or related set of concerns experienced by a group of stakeholders.
D.    An informal summary of project outcomes used in the management reporting and decision making process.

Answer: C

QUESTION 24
How might an understanding of business and technology dependencies assist in the development of a phased implementation roadmap?

A.    By enabling the creation of a risk mitigation plan to mitigate or reduce risk.
B.    By determining the level of technical and business support needed to implement each roadmap component.
C.    By helping to determine the most effective order in which each technology component should be implemented.
D.    By focusing the Solution Architect onto the most mission-critical aspects of the solution first.

Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Which three options are financial challenges when determining the financial value of a Cisco solution? (Choose three.)

A.    Financial resources are distributed across functional areas.
B.    Long term and cycles for deployment and adoption.
C.    Cost efficiencies and reductions.
D.    Difficulty to determine NPV.
E.    Increase revenue and margins.

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 26
Which option is the best description for NPV?

A.    The adoption of licensed third-party solutions and services may result in a lower NPV.
B.    The NPV takes into consideration the direct and indirect costs of maintaining technology solutions and services.
C.    NPV is factored into the ROI calculation.
D.    The opportunity to reduce NPV is a measureable business outcome and benefit to the customer business.
E.    The NPV of technology solutions and services indicates the monetary value that those solutions bring to the business.

Answer: E

QUESTION 27
Which two options are direct financial benefits of the outcome-based sales? (Choose two.)

A.    Increased NPV.
B.    Lower project costs.
C.    Process efficiencies.
D.    Faster time to market for new solutions.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 28
Which two options are indirect financial benefits of the outcome-based sales? (Choose two.)

A.    Increased NPV.
B.    Lower project costs.
C.    Process efficiencies.
D.    Faster time to market for new solutions.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 29
Which two options are true regarding chargeback and showback? (Choose two.)

A.    Chargeback is an internal billing mechanism where departments directly pay for their consumption of IT services.
B.    Showback is an internal billing mechanism where departments directly pay for their consumption of IT services.
C.    Chargeback provides departments with visibility to their consumption of IT services but do not directly pay for the services.
D.    Showback provides departments with visibility to their consumption of IT services but do not directly pay for the services.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 30
What is the purpose of the Solution Business Impact Index?

A.    It is a number that identifies how sooner in the implementation roadmap should the benefits appear.
B.    It is a matrix that lists the solutions and business priorities of the customer, and ranks the solutions according to the impact they generate.
C.    It is a chart to display the importance of Cisco technologies.
D.    It is an alternative to the business outcome-based sales approach.

Answer: B

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QUESTION 21
Which deployment model is the best solution for a simple installation with the most secure connection outside the production network forCisco Meeting Server?

A.    Scaled and Resilient Server Deployment
B.    Single Split Server Deployment
C.    Single Combined Server Deployment
D.    Scaled and Combined Server Deployment

Answer: C

QUESTION 22
How is TIP defined?

A.    TIP multiplexes RTP ports to reduce the number of video streams required in calls between any H.323 and SIP endpoint. Whether they are immersive endpoints or non- immersive endpoints.
B.    TIP allows communication between any immersive and non-immersive endpoint.
C.    TIP allows communication between any endpoint, regardless of what protocol is used
D.    TIP multiplexes RTP ports to reduce the number of video streams required in cars between immersive endpoints.

Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which statement is true regarding TMS permissions?

A.    TMS Permissions are assigned to groups, and users are added to the groups.
B.    TMS Permissions are directly assigned to individual users.
C.    TMS Permissions are configured in Active Directory, which is then synched to TMS.
D.    TMS Permissions can be imported from the Expressway or CUCM.

Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which statement is true about APIs and SDKs?

A.    SDKs specify how software components should interact
B.    APIs consist of a set of SDKs, sample code, technical notes, and debugging facilities.
C.    SDKs can be used without APIs.
D.    APIs can be used without SDKs.

Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which type of API is used to configure settings on Cisco Meeting Server?

A.    REST
B.    XML-RPC
C.    SOAP
D.    XMP-RPC

Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which is a protocol used in the H.323 standard?

A.    802.1
B.    SIP
C.    Q.931
D.    SDP

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/voice/H-323/configuration/15-mt/voi-h323-overview.html#GUID-8130E479-580A-4450-91EA-A1CDCE96548A

QUESTION 27
What is a function of a call control solution?

A.    To make, monitor and maintain calls
B.    To provide an audio and video interface for the user
C.    To join 3 or more participants in a meeting.
D.    To schedule calls

Answer: A

QUESTION 28
What do Enterprise Settingson Cisco Spark determine?

A.    Where user information comes from.
B.    BOT integration
C.    API integration
D.    How Connectors are integrated in a hybrid deployment.

Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which management solution works with endpointsregistered to UCM, VCS and Expressway?

A.    Prime
B.    CMA
C.    CMR
D.    TMS

Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which premise-based conferencing solution supports Skype for Business and WebRTC?

A.    TelePresence Server
B.    Spark
C.    Cisco Meeting Server
D.    Cisco WebEx

Answer: B

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QUESTION 21
You assign security roles to an owner team and each user on the team.
What effect does the security role that is assigned to the team have on the individual team members?

A.    The permissions for the user are used instead of those of the team.
B.    The user is granted the least restrictive permissions of the two roles.
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QUESTION 21
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A.    VLAN attacks
B.    IP source routing
C.    MAC address floods
D.    DHCP-based IP redirection attacks
E.    Spanning-tree attacks

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QUESTION 61
Which three of the following tasks can be performed using Cisco Unified Real-Time Monitoring Tool? (Choose three.)

A.    collect trace files
B.    stop and start Cisco Unified CCX services
C.    view syslog messages
D.    perform backup and restore functions
E.    monitor the health of the Cisco Unified CCX system

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QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit which two statement about the given IPV6 ZBF configuration are true? (Choose two)

211

A.    It provides backward compability with legacy IPv6 inspection
B.    It inspect TCP, UDP,ICMP and FTP traffic from Z1 to Z2.
C.    It inspect TCP, UDP,ICMP and FTP traffic from Z2 to Z1.
D.    It inspect TCP,UDP,ICMP and FTP traffic in both direction between z1 and z2.
E.    It passes TCP, UDP,ICMP and FTP traffic from z1 to z2.
F.    It provide backward compatibility with legacy IPv4 inseption.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 22
In which class of applications security threads does HTTP header manipulation reside?

A.    Session management
B.    Parameter manipulation
C.    Software tampering
D.    Exception managements

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.cgisecurity.com/owasp/html/ch11s04.html
Session management doesn’t have anything to do with HTTP header

QUESTION 23
What is the most commonly used technology to establish an encrypted HTTP connection?

A.    the HTTP/1.1 Upgrade header
B.    the HTTP/1.0 Upgrade header
C.    Secure Hypertext Transfer Protocol
D.    HTTPS

Answer: D

QUESTION 24
What functionality is provided by DNSSEC?

A.    origin authentication of DNS data
B.    data confidentiality of DNS queries and answers
C.    access restriction of DNS zone transfers
D.    storage of the certificate records in a DNS zone file

Answer: A

QUESTION 25
What are the two mechanism that are used to authenticate OSPFv3 packets?(Choose two)

A.    MD5
B.    ESP
C.    PLAIN TEXT
D.    AH
E.    SHA

Answer: BD

QUESTION 26
You have been asked to configure a Cisco ASA appliance in multiple mode with these settings:

(A) You need two customer contexts, named contextA and contextB
(B) Allocate interfaces G0/0 and G0/1 to contextA
(C) Allocate interfaces G0/0 and G0/2 to contextB
(D) The physical interface name for G0/1 within contextA should be “inside”.
(E) All other context interfaces must be viewable via their physical interface names.

If the admin context is already defined and all interfaces are enabled, which command set will complete this configuration?

A.    context contextA
config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
context contextB
config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2 visible
B.    context contexta
config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
context contextb
config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2 visible
C.    context contextA
config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 invisible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
context contextB
config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 invisible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2 invisible
D.    context contextA
config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
context contextB
config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2
E.    context contextA
config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
context contextB
config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 visible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2 visible

Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which statement about the cisco anyconnect web security module is true ?

A.    It is VPN client software that works over the SSl protocol.
B.    It is an endpoint component that is used with smart tunnel in a clientless SSL VPN.
C.    It operates as an NAC agent when it is configured with the Anyconnect VPN client.
D.    It is deployed on endpoints to route HTTP traffic to SCANsafe

Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which two statements about the SeND protocol are true? (Choose two)

A.    It uses IPsec as a baseline mechanism
B.    It supports an autoconfiguration mechanism
C.    It must be enabled before you can configure IPv6 addresses
D.    It supports numerous custom neighbor discovery messages
E.    It counters neighbor discovery threats
F.    It logs IPv6-related threats to an external log server

Answer: BE

Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ips/6-1/configuration/guide/cli/cliguide/cli_signature_engines.html#wp1141808

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QUESTION 21
What IOS commands display MPLS label mapping on an LSR?

A.    Show mpls ldp parameters
B.    Show mpls ldp bindings
C.    Show mpls forwading-table
D.    Show mpls ldp discovery
E.    Show mpls ldp neighbor detail

Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Drag and Drop Questions

221

Answer:

222

QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit. The vrf MAINT has been provisioned and used by the Service Provider management network. The engineer discovers that syslog messages are not being received on the syslog server. IP reachability has been validated using ping.
Which issue in the configuration must be corrected?

231

A.    logging on must include the vrf MAINT keyword.
B.    logging host must include the vrf MAINT keyword.
C.    The logging facility must be configured for syslog processing.
D.    The route targets that are configured do not match the route distinguisher.

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2sr/12_2sra/feature/guide/srvrfslg.html#wp1059076

QUESTION 24
Which are the three header fields that affect how Equal-Cost Multipath hashes traffic flow into interface groups? (Choose three.)

A.    source MAC address
B.    source port
C.    source IP address
D.    destination IP address
E.    IP protocol ID
F.    destination MAC address

Answer: BCD

QUESTION 25
An R1 router requires an equal load balancing to reach the prefix 192.168.0.0/16 over two exit points: through R2 and R3 routers. Which two options must be configured on the R1 router to achieve this goal? (Choose two.)

A.    The BGP maximum path feature must be configured on R1.
B.    The BGP PIC core must be enabled on R1
C.    Weight, local-pref, MED, as-path length, origin, and the BGP next-hop IGP cost must be the same for the R2 and R3 IBGP updates to R1.
D.    The BGP Link Bandwidth feature must be applied on R1.
E.    BGP extended community exchange must be enabled between IBGP neighbors.

Answer: AC
Explanation:
BGP link-bandwidth is for unequal-cost routes.

QUESTION 26
A company is deciding between an HVR and SVR solution in order to finalize a virtualization project proposal. Which is an advantage of a HVR solution versus a SVR solution?

A.    A HVR solution implements dedicated data plane resources.
B.    A HVR solution implements shared control plane resources.
C.    A HVR solution introduces significant contention of resources.
D.    A HVR solution implements dedicated chassis resources.

Answer: A
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/solutions/collateral/ns341/ns524/ns562/ns573/white_paper_c11-512753_ns573_Networking_Solutions_White_Paper.html

QUESTION 27
Which three of these are optical channel data unit (ODU) overhead fields? (Choose three)

A.    general communication channel 0 (GCC0)
B.    section monitoring
C.    reserved (RES)
D.    general communication channels 1 and 2 (GCC1 GCC2)
E.    tandem connection monitoring activation deactivation (TCM ACT)

Answer: CDE

QUESTION 28
Which three modes are the operating of HDLC? (Choose three)

A.    asynchronous balanced mode (ABM)
B.    normal response mode (NRM)
C.    normal peer mode (NPM)
D.    asynchronous client mode (ACM)
E.    asynchronous response mode (ARM)

Answer: ABE
Explanation:
Asynchronous response mode is an HDLC addition[1] for use over full-duplex links. While retaining the primary/secondary distinction, it allows the secondary to transmit at any time. Asynchronous balanced mode added the concept of a combined terminal which can act as both a primary and a secondary. There are some subtleties about this mode of operation; while many features of the protocol do not care whether they are in a command or response frame, some do, and the address field of a received frame must be examined to determine whether it contains a command (the address received is ours) or a response (the address received is that of the other terminal).

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