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QUESTION 21
Which OpenStack component implements role-based access control?

A.    Horizon
B.    Nova
C.    Neutron
D.    Keystone

Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit. R2 is configured as the R1 neighbor in area 51, but R2 fails to receive the configured summary route.
Which action can you take to correct the problem?

221

A.    Replace the summary-address command with the area-range command.
B.    Configure a summary address under R1interface GigabitEthernet0/0.
C.    Configure a summary address under R1 interface GigabitEthernet1/0.
D.    Configure the no discard-route command in the OSPF process of R1.
E.    Configure ip ospf network broadcast under the Loopback0 interface of R1.

Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which two conditions must be met before IS-IS Level 1 routers will become adjacent?(Choose two.)

A.    The routers must share a common Autonomous System Number.
B.    The router must share a common process ID.
C.    The router must be in different areas.
D.    The routers must share a common network segment.
E.    The routers must be configured with the neighbor command.
F.    The routers must be in the same area.

Answer: DF

QUESTION 24
Which two statements are true about control plane policing? (Choose two.)

A.    Control plane policing will affect only traffic that is destined to the route processor.
B.    Access lists that are used in policies for control plane policing must not use the log keyword.
C.    Access lists that use the deny rule in control plane policing do not progress to the next class.
D.    The log keyword can be used but the log-input keyword must not be used in policing.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 25
Which three pieces of information are carried on OSPF type 3 LSAs? (Choose three)

A.    metric
B.    authentication type
C.    link state
D.    IP subnet
E.    external route tag
F.    subnet mask

Answer: ACF

QUESTION 26
Your NetFlow collector is not working due to a large amount of traffic entering your network which is destined to a single IP address.
Which NetFlow feature allows you to collect the top source hosts for this traffic on the local router?

A.    NetFlow can export flows only to a extermal flow collector
B.    show ip cache flow
C.    ip accounting
D.    ip flow-top-talkers

Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit. R1, R2 and R3 are in different satelite offices of the same prganization.
A multicast video source is located behind R1.R3 frequently receives video streams intend for R2.
These streams saturate the available bandwidth of R3.
Which configuration change can alleviate the congestion on R3?

271

A.    Configure R3 to send an immediate-leave message when necessary to stop receiving unwanted traffic.
B.    Configure IGMP snooping on R1, R2, and R3.
C.    Place a PIM filter on the switches and interfaces that connect to R1, R2, and R3.
D.    Enable IGMP snooping on all switches that connect to R1, R2, and R3.
E.    Place a PIM filter on the switch and interface that connect to R1 only.

Answer: D

QUESTION 28
With which protocol is CoAP designed to be used?

A.    TCP
B.    SNMP
C.    UDP
D.    XMPP

Answer: C

QUESTION 29
Which two solutions can reduce UDP latency? (Choose two.)

A.    fast retransmission
B.    fast recovery
C.    low-latency queuing
D.    IP service level agreements
E.    congestion-avoidance algorithm

Answer: CD
Explanation:
In the actual exam, if becomes single choice question just choose C.

QUESTION 30
Which three statements describe the characteristics of a VPLS architecture? (Choose three.)

A.    It forwards Ethernet frames.
B.    It maps MAC address destinations to IP next hops
C.    It supports MAC address aging.
D.    It replicates broadcast and multicast frames to multiple ports.
E.    It conveys MAC address reachability information in a separate control protocol.
F.    It can suppress the flooding of traffic.

Answer: ACD

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QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit. A user is going through a series of dialing steps on a SIP Type B IP phone (for example, a Cisco 7975) to call an SCCP IP phone. Both phones are registered to the same Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster. Assuming the calling SIP phone is associated with a SIP Dial Rule with a pattern value of 2001, which statement about the call setup process of this call is true?

211

A.    Each digit will arrive at Cisco Unified Communications Manager in a SIP NOTIFY message as a KPML
event, and Cisco Unified Communications Manager will extend the call as soon as the collected digits
match the extension of the SCCP IP phone, bypassing class of service configuration on both IP phones.
B.    Each digit will arrive at Cisco Unified Communications Manager in a SIP NOTIFY message as a KPML
event. When the collected digits match the extension of the SCCP IP phone, Cisco Unified Communications
Manager
will extend the call only if the class of service configuration on both phones permits this action.
C.    As soon as the user selects the Dial softkey, the SIP IP phone will forward all digits to Cisco Unified
Communications Manager in a SIP INVITE message. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will extend
the call as soon as the collected digits match the extension of the SCCP IP phone, bypassing class of service
configuration on both IP phones.
D.    As soon as the user selects the Dial softkey, the SIP IP phone will forward all digits to Cisco Unified
Communications Manager in a SIP INVITE message. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will extend
the call only if class of service configuration on both phones permits this action.
E.    The SIP IP phone will wait for the interdigit timer to expire, and then send all digits to Cisco Unified
Communications Manager in a SIP INVITE message. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will extend
the call as soon as the collected digits match the extension of the SCCP IP phone, bypassing class of
service configuration on both IP phones.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Cisco Type B SIP Phones offer functionality based SIP INVITE Message. Every key the end user presses triggers an individual SIP message. The first event is communicated with a SIP INVITE, but subsequent messages use SIP NOTIFY messages. The SIP NOTIFY messages send KPML events corresponding to any buttons or soft keys pressed by the user. Cisco Type B SIP IP Phones with SIP dial rules operate in the same manner as Cisco Type A phones with dial rules.

QUESTION 22
What does a comma accomplish when it is used in a SIP Dial Rule pattern that is associated with a Cisco 9971 IP Phone that is registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

A.    It inserts a 500-millisecond pause between digits.
B.    It causes the phone to generate a secondary dial tone.
C.    It is a delimiter and has no significant dialing impact.
D.    It indicates a timeout value of 5000 milliseconds.
E.    It is an obsolete parameter and will be ignored.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Comma is accepted in speed dial as delimiter and pause. -Comma used to delineate dial string, FAC, CMC, and post connect digits For post connect digits, commas insert a 2 second delay Commas may be duplicated to create longer delays

QUESTION 23
Which Call Admission Control mechanism is supported for the Cisco Extension Mobility Cross Cluster solution?

A.    Location CAC
B.    RSVP CAC
C.    H.323 gatekeeper
D.    intercluster Enhanced Location CAC
E.    visiting cluster’s LBM hub

Answer: B
Explanation:
Configuring extension mobility cross cluster (EMCC) is nothing you should take lightly. EMCC requires a lot of configuration parameters including the exporting and importing of each neighbor cluster’s X.509v3 digital certificates. EMCC is supported over SIP trunks only. Presence is another feature that’s only supported over SIP trunks. If you want to be able to perform scalable Call Admission Control (CAC) in a distributed multi- cluster call processing model, you will need to point an H.225 or Gatekeeper controlled trunk to an H.323 Gatekeeper for CAC… but if you want to support presence and EMCC between clusters and maintain CAC.

QUESTION 24
Which two Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP profile configuration parameters for a SIP intercluster trunk are mandatory to enable end-to-end RSVP SIP Preconditions between clusters? (Choose two.)

A.    Set the RSVP over SIP parameter to Local RSVP.
B.    Set the RSVP over SIP parameter to E2E.
C.    Set the SIP Rel1XX Options parameter to Disabled.
D.    Set the SIP Rel1XX Options parameter to Send PRACK If 1xx Contains SDP.
E.    Set the SIP Rel1XX Options parameter to Send PRACK for All 1xx Messages.
F.    Check the Fall Back to Local RSVP check box.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
Each Unified Communications Manager cluster and Unified CME should have the same configuration information. For example, Application ID should be the same on each Unified Communications Manager cluster and Unified CME. RSVP Service parameters should be the same on each Unified Communications Manager cluster.

QUESTION 25
What is the number of directory URIs with which a Cisco Unified Communications Manager directory number can be associated?

A.    1
B.    up to 2
C.    up to 3
D.    up to 4
E.    up to 5

Answer: E
Explanation:
Cisco Unified Communications Manager supports dialing using directory URIs for call addressing. Directory URIs look like email addresses and follow the username@host format where the host portion is an IPv4 address or a fully qualified domain name. A directory URI is a uniform resource identifier, a string of characters that can be used to identify a directory number. If that directory number is assigned to a phone, Cisco Unified Communications Manager can route calls to that phone using the directory URI. URI dialing is available for SIP and SCCP endpoints that support directory URIs.

QUESTION 26
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager partition will be associated with a directory URI that is configured for an end user with a primary extension?

A.    null
B.    none
C.    directory URI
D.    default
E.    any partition that the Cisco Unified Communications Manager administrator desires

Answer: C
Explanation:
Cisco Unified Communications Manager supports dialing using directory URIs for call addressing. Directory URIs look like email addresses and follow the username@host format where the host portion is an IPv4 address or a fully qualified domain name. A directory URI is a uniform resource identifier, a string of characters that can be used to identify a directory number. If that directory number is assigned to a phone, Cisco Unified Communications Manager can route calls to that phone using the directory URI. URI dialing is available for SIP and SCCP endpoints that support directory URIs.

QUESTION 27
Which Call Control Discovery function allows the local Cisco Unified Communications Manager to listen for advertisements from remote call-control entities that use the SAF network?

A.    CCD advertising service
B.    CCD requesting service
C.    SAF forwarder
D.    SAF enabled trunks
E.    CCD registration service

Answer: B
Explanation:
SAF and CCD will allow large distributed multi-cluster deployments to have the directory number (DN) ranges of each call routing element advertised dynamically over SAF. Cisco routers act as SAF Forwarders (SAFF), while the call routing elements (e.g. CUCM) act as clients that register with the routers to advertise their DN ranges and listen to the advertisements of other routers.

QUESTION 28
Which codec complexity mode, when deployed on Cisco IOS routers with DSPs using the C5510 chipset, supports the most G.711 calls per DSP?

A.    Low
B.    Medium
C.    High
D.    Secure
E.    Flex

Answer: E
Explanation:
The flex parameter allows the complexity to automatically adjust to either medium or high complexity depending on the needs of a call. For example, if a call uses the G.711 codec, the C5510 chipset automatically adjusts to the medium-complexity mode. However, if the call uses G.729, the C5510 chipset uses the high complexity mode

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QUESTION 21
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QUESTION 31
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A.    Forensic attack
B.    ARP spoofing attack
C.    Social engineering attack
D.    Scanning attack

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QUESTION 101
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator previously configured a XenDesktop Site to use evaluation licenses. The administrator has recently installed valid Enterprise licenses on the Citrix License Server and confirmed that licenses show correctly in the licensing console. However, a user reported an issue about logging on to the published desktop. The user received an error message stating that the evaluation license is about to expire.

What should the administrator do to fix this issue?

A.    Restart the License service
B.    Change the product Edition in Citrix Studio
C.    Remove the stale registry entries from License Server
D.    Verify the host name entry in the license file

Answer: A

QUESTION 102
A Citrix Administrator wants to use NetScaler Gateway to allow external users to access internal resources securely.

Which three functionalities will the NetScaler Gateway provide to allow access to internal resources on behalf of external users? (Choose three.)

A.    Allow secured external connections to StoreFront (reverse Web Proxy)
B.    Authenticate Users
C.    Enumerate resources
D.    Allow secured access to internal hosted applications (HDX Proxy)
E.    Aggregate resources

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 103
Which tool can be used to simulate multiple sessions of auto-creating printers using the same non-native printers?

A.    Windows Performance Kit
B.    Print Detective
C.    Citrix UPS Print Driver Certification
D.    StressPrinters

Answer: D

QUESTION 104
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to secure XML traffic to an existing XenDesktop environment. The Microsoft Internet Information Services (IIS) is NOT installed on the Delivery Controller with the IP address 10.110.4.10.

The organization mandates that a public certificate authority (CA) server should be used for securing all communication traffic.

After successfully testing the changes, the administrator will make the necessary changes within StoreFront.

Which two steps should the administrator take to make the necessary changes? (Choose two.)

A.    Run the PowerShell command: BrokerService -WiSsIPort 443
B.    Change the registry value of XmlServicesSsIPort HKLM\SOFTWARE\Citrix\DesktopServer to 443
C.    Create a Domain Certificate
D.    Create a certificate Requesr
E.    Run the command: netsh http add sslcert ipport=10.110.4.10:443

Answer: A

QUESTION 105
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is investigating an instability in the system that is causing the Print Spooler service to stop frequently on the XenApp server. The administrator finds printer driver conflicts in the environment.
Which policy can the administrator use to resolve this issue and remove the unwanted printer drivers on the XenApp server?

A.    Use only printer model specific drivers
B.    Automatic Installation of in-box printer drivers
C.    Auto-connect all client printers
D.    Use universal printing only if requested driver is unavailable

Answer: D

QUESTION 106
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator will use PowerShell to configure a new restart schedule for the Windows 2016 Server OS group named “Win2016-ServerOS” within the company’s XenDesktop infrastructure.

The administrator needs the machines in the Server OS group to restart at a time when NO users will be accessing them: beginning at 23:00 h (11 PM) each day, with 30-minute intervals between each machine restart.

Which PowerShell command should the administrator use?

A.    Set-BrokerRebootScheduleV2 ­Name XYZ-ServerOS-DailyReboot-DesktopGroupName Win2016-ServerOS ­Frequency Daily ­StartTime “11:00” ­Enabled $true ­RebootDuration
B.    Set-BrokerRebootSchedule ­Name XYZ-ServerOS-DailyReboot-DesktopGroupName Win2016-ServerOS ­Frequency Daily ­StartTime “23:00” ­Enabled $true ­RebootDuration
C.    New-BrokerRebootSchedule ­Name XYZ-ServerOS-DailyReboot-DesktopGroupName Win2016-ServerOS ­Frequency Daily ­StartTime “11:00” ­Enabled $true ­RebootDuration
D.    New-BrokerRebootScheduleV2 ­Name XYZ-ServerOS-DailyReboot- DesktopGroupName Win2016-ServerOS ­Frequency Daily ­StartTime “23:00” ­Enabled $true ­RebootDuration 30

Answer: A

QUESTION 107
A Citrix Administrator needs to review the Delivery Group  historical data from the last 200 days. Which tool allows the administrator to view this data?

A.    Citrix Studio – Delivery Groups
B.    Citrix Director – Dashboard
C.    Citrix Studio – Applications
D.    Citrix Director – Trends

Answer: D

QUESTION 108
Which Layer contains the Citrix Director in a XenApp and XenDesktop Architecture model?

A.    Resource
B.    User
C.    Control
D.    Access

Answer: C

QUESTION 109
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to deploy Receiver to a group of new users who use restricted workstations that do NOT allow applications to be installed locally on them. These users are internal to the company and connect directly to the XenDesktop environment via Storefront.

Which deployment option is optimal for these new users?

A.    Receiver for Web deployed from StoreFront
B.    Native Receiver deployed through Active Directory scripting
C.    Receiver for HTML5 deployed through client web browser
D.    Native Receiver deployed through group policy

Answer: A

QUESTION 110
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator has been receiving calls from users stating that they are receiving new sessions instead of reconnecting to their disconnected sessions. The administrator investigated the issue and found the sessions are in a disconnected state when the users leave work.

What should the administrator configure inStoreFront to allow the users to reconnect to their disconnected sessions while roaming?

A.    Session Lingering
B.    Session Pre-Launch
C.    Workspace Control
D.    Session Timeout

Answer: A

QUESTION 111
An organization needs fewer printers created during session startup, so that sessions start faster. Which policy allows the Citrix Administrator to achieve this goal?

A.    Client Printer Redirection
B.    Direct Connections to Print Servers
C.    Printer Properties Retention
D.    Auto-Create Client Printers

Answer: D

QUESTION 112
A Citrix Administrator needs to join a XenDesktop Controller to an existing site that is configured to use a mirrored SQL server database.

Using Citrix Studio, which two methods can the administrator choose to meet this requirement? (Choose two.)

A.    Run the Join Existing Wizard, select “Update the database manually”; generate scripts and run them in Administrative Power Shell Window on SQL Server
B.    Run the Join Existing Wizard, select “Update the database manually”; generate scripts and run them on SQL Server Management Studio in SQLCMD mode
C.    Run the Join Existing Wizard, select “Update the database automatically”; mirroring is detected without user intervention
D.    Run the Join Existing Wizard, select “Update the database automatically”; mirroring can be configured later on

Answer: BC

QUESTION 113
Which two cloud providers are supported with XenApp and XenDesktop 7.15? (Choose two.)

A.    Amazon Web Services
B.    Google Cloud Services
C.    Microsoft Azure
D.    IBM Cloud

Answer: AC

QUESTION 114
Which tool can a Citrix Administrator use to collect information to investigate issues with session performance?

A.    XDPing
B.    CDF Control
C.    XenDesktop Site Checker
D.    HDX Monitor

Answer: C

QUESTION 115
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator implemented XenApp/XenDesktop to centrally host applications for internal and external users.
Recently, the SQL servers hosting the Site database experienced a major problem. As a result, the database is corrupted and the administrator needs to restore the Site database from backup.

Which precautionary action must the administrator consider before restoring the Site database?

A.    Nullify the connection strings from the registry using PowerShell so that the controllers do NOT connect to the database
B.    Remove any hotfixes applied after the backup before performing the restore
C.    Verify that all Delivery Controllers are shut down
D.    Verify that the restore option in SQL Studio is set to  ITH RESTRICTED_USER?

Answer: B

QUESTION 116
Which piece of License Server information does a Citrix Administrator need in order to allocate and download the XenDesktop license file from mycitrix.com?

A.    IP Address
B.    MAC Address
C.    Hostname
D.    FQDN

Answer: B

QUESTION 117
Which printer tool helps enumerate all printer drivers from a specified Windows machine, including driver- specific information, and allows deletion of unwanted drivers?

A.    Citrix UPS Print Driver Certification
B.    Windows Performance Kit
C.    StressPrinters
D.    Print Detective

Answer: D

QUESTION 118
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to configure StoreFront to allow external users to access internal resources. The external users will authenticate on StoreFront.

Which Storefront Authentication method will the administrator configure?

A.    HTTP Basic
B.    Username and password
C.    Smart Card
D.    Pass-through from NetScaler Gateway

Answer: D

QUESTION 119
What is the order of precedence, from highest to lowest, for the different policy types that can be used to configure Citrix policies?

A.    Site local (created in Citrix Studio), Organizational Unit GPO, Domain GPO, Site GPO, Local Computer
B.    Local Computer, Site local (created in Citrix Studio), Site GPO, Domain GPO, Organizational Unit GPO
C.    Organizational Unit GPO, Domain GPO, Site GPO, Site local (created in Citrix Studio), local Computer
D.    Local Computer, Site local (created in Citrix Studio), Organizational Unit GPO, Domain GPO, Site GPO

Answer: C

QUESTION 120
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is working on a published application. The network connection remains for 240 seconds but is interrupted, and applications become unusable. The session then prompts for authentication. After the administrator successfully authenticates, the session is reconnected.

Which policy makes this possible?

A.    Load Management
B.    Auto Client Reconnect
C.    ICA Keep Alive
D.    Session Reliability

Answer: D

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D.    Verbal Informal Report

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QUESTION 86
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to deploy 300 Virtual Windows 10 Desktops in an environment in which there is minimal interference with existing network infrastructure. There is also a need for user- installed applications and persistency.

Which Citrix technology will the administrator use to provision the desktops?

A.    Machine Creation Services
B.    Provisioning Services
C.    Manual Provisioning
D.    Existing Machines

Answer: B

QUESTION 87
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to configure a Designer User Group, which has the following requirements:

– Users need to leverage existing physical corporate desktops
– Users require remote access to their applications as soon as possible Users will engage in resource-intensive work

Which FlexCast Model can the administrator use?

A.    Hosted VDI (Static/Persistent)
B.    Hosted VDI (Random/Non-Persistent)
C.    Remote PC
D.    VM-Hosted Applications

Answer: C

QUESTION 88
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator has developed a PowerShell script in a XenDesktop testing infrastructure. After successful tests, the administrator received permission to implement the script in the production environment?

The administrator needs to run the script from Citrix Studio PowerShell. Which command should the administrator run before running the script?

A.    Add-AdminPermission
B.    Set-ExecutionPolicy Unrestricted
C.    Add-Pssnapin Citrix.
D.    Get-Command-Module Citrix.

Answer: C

QUESTION 89
Scenario: A user is working on a document in a XenDesktop session and saves data on the desktop. The Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) session abruptly crashes, causing the saved data to be lost.

Which Citrix Profile Management policy can be enabled to prevent data loss?

A.    Delay Cached Profile Deletion
B.    Active Write Back
C.    Profile Caching
D.    Profile Streaming

Answer: B

QUESTION 90
Citrix Health Assistant automates a series of health checks for ________ and _________. (Choose the correct options to complete the sentence.)

A.    Controller Configuration
B.    Session Launch
C.    VDA Registration
D.    Power Management

Answer: AC

QUESTION 91
A Citrix Administrator needs to improve the launch times of published applications for end users. Which two features can be the administrator enable to achieve this goal? (Choose two.)

A.    Session Pre-Launch
B.    ICA Keep Alive
C.    Session Sharing
D.    Session Reliability

Answer: AC

QUESTION 92
A Citrix Administrator is trying to configure a XenDesktop site for use with a mirrored SQL Server database.

Which collation sequence should be used when creating an empty database on the principal SQL Server?

A.    _100_CI_AS_KS
B.    _100_CI_AI_SC
C.    _100_CI_AI_WS
D.    _CS_AI_AS

Answer: B

QUESTION 93
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator wants to add machines to a delivery group. The administrator has two Machine Catalogs containing unallocated machines. At the screen to choose machines from Machine Catalogs, the administrator can see that only one Machine Catalog is available.

A possible cause of this issue is that the machines in the unavailable Machine Catalog are ________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)

A.    unregistered
B.    different OS types
C.    powered off
D.    provisioned with another provisioning method

Answer: A

QUESTION 94
Which three database high availability features are supported in XenApp/XenDesktop? (Choose three.)

A.    Flashback
B.    Mirroring
C.    Clustered Instances
D.    Automatic Storage Management
E.    Always On Availability Groups

Answer: BCE

QUESTION 95
When creating a new Delegated Administrator with a Custom Scope, a Citrix Administrator notices that the Full Administrator Role is NOT available.

Why is the administrator experiencing this behavior?

A.    The Custom Scope CANNOT use the Full Administrator Role
B.    The Custom Scope created did NOT contain all the required objects
C.    The Custom Scope must use the Read-Only Role
D.    The Custom Scope was created with the Hosting object selected

Answer: A

QUESTION 96
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is troubleshooting a case where policies are NOT being applied as expected to a XenDesktop session. Citrix policies are configured in both Citrix Studio and Group Policy Management Console (GPMC).

Which tool can the administrator use to simulate a scenario to see the Citrix policies that are being applied from both Citrix Studio and GPMC?

A.    Group Policy Results tool from GPMC
B.    Citrix Group Policy Modeling Wizard in GPMC
C.    Comparison Tab in Citrix Studio
D.    Citrix Group Policy Modeling Wizard in Citrix Studio

Answer: D

QUESTION 97
A Citrix Administrator needs to configure Store Front for High Availability in order to aggregate resources from multiple deployments.

Which two requirements or restrictions should the administrator consider when deciding to set up highly available multi-site configurations for stores? (Choose two.)

A.    App Controller applications can also be aggregated as long as they have the same name and path on each server
B.    StoreFront only provides access to backup deployments for disaster recovery when all the primary sites are available
C.    While running “propagate task”, the administrator CANNOT make any further changes until all the servers in the group have been updated
D.    If synchronization of user’s application subscriptions is configured between stores on separate StoreFront deployments, the stores must have the same name in each server group

Answer: CD

QUESTION 98
Creating Application Groups requires the delegated Administration permission of the built-in role. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)

A.    Machine Catalog Administrator
B.    Host Administrator
C.    Delivery Group Administrator
D.    Help Desk Administrator

Answer: C

QUESTION 99
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator has deployed machines using Machine Creation Services (MCS). A user logs on to a randomly available desktop from a pool of Windows 10 desktops. During the session, the user installs Microsoft Office 2016.

To which disk is the Microsoft Office installation data written during the session?

A.    Personal
B.    Identity
C.    Temporary
D.    Differencing

Answer: A

QUESTION 100
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is planning to update a Machine Catalog for the first time. The Machine Catalog was created with Machine Creation Services (MCS).

What happens to the identity disk after the update?

A.    It is deleted and recreated
B.    It stays the same size
C.    It doubles in size
D.    It is formatted and re-initialized

Answer: A

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QUESTION 21
An engineer is assigned to provide wireless coverage in a provincial capital building. Due to the age and historic nature of the building, the ability to run new copper Ethernet cable to desired AP locations is limited. Which requirement should the engineer specify to overcome this restriction?

A.    Deploy access points where the survey indicates and connect them via fiber optic cable, using a mediaadapter, and locally provide power.
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QUESTION 21
Which virtualization technology allows for HSRP protocol to be used in the active/active configuration where both HSRP Layer 3 devices can forward network traffic?

A.    OTV
B.    VSS
C.    vPC
D.    VDC

Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which technology extends Layer 2 LANs over any network that supports IP?

A.    OTV
B.    VSS
C.    vPC
D.    VLAN

Answer: A

QUESTION 23
What is the purpose of an OTV edge device?

A.    connect to other data centers
B.    connect to the access layer
C.    connect to the end users
D.    connect to mobile devices

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/DCI/whitepaper/DCI3_OTV_Intro/DCI_1.html
“Edge Device
The edge device (Figure 1-1) performs OTV functions: it receives the Layer 2 traffic for all VLANs that need to be extended to remote locations and dynamically encapsulates the Ethernet frames into IP packets that are then sent across the transport infrastructure.
[…]
Finally, the OTV edge device can be positioned in different parts of the data center. ”

QUESTION 24
Which QoS architecture provides scalability of implementation?

A.    IntServ
B.    DiffServ
C.    LLQ
D.    RSVP

Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which architecture provides a way to deliver end-to-end QoS as required by real-time voice and video business applications?

A.    IntServ
B.    DiffServ
C.    LLQ
D.    ToS
E.    DSCP

Answer: A
Explanation:
DiffServ is known as “Hop-by-Hop” and not “End-to-End”

QUESTION 26
CoS is applied for Layer 2 markings in an Ethernet environment. Which protocol must be configured on the Layer 2 switch port for CoS to work?

A.    MPLS
B.    IEEE 802.1W
C.    IEEE 802.1Q
D.    IEEE 802.1S

Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which protocol is used in an in-band network and why?

A.    UDP, because it is connectionless
B.    SSH, because the username and password are encrypted
C.    Telnet, because the username and password are sent in clear
D.    MSDP, because it uses TCP as its transport protocol

Answer: B

QUESTION 28
What is an advantage of having an out-of-band management?

A.    It is less expensive to have an out-of-band management.
B.    Network devices can still be managed, even in case of network outage.
C.    There is no separation between the production network and the management network.
D.    SSH protocol must be used to manage network devices.

Answer: B

QUESTION 29
The direction of the flow of multicast traffic is based on which protocol?

A.    PIM
B.    IGMP
C.    underlying IGP
D.    MSDP

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/solutions_docs/ip_multicast/White_papers/mcst_ovr.html
“Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF) PIM uses the unicast routing information to create a distribution tree along the reverse path from the receivers towards the source. The multicast routers then forward packets along the distribution tree from the source to the receivers. RPF is a key concept in multicast forwarding. It enables routers to correctly forward multicast traffic down the distribution tree. RPF makes use of the existing unicast routing table to determine the upstream and downstream neighbors. A router will forward a multicast packet only if it is received on the upstream interface. This RPF check helps to guarantee that the distribution tree will be loopfree.”

QUESTION 30
Which option can be implemented to manipulate the election of PIM DR to force multicast traffic to a certain path?

A.    Assign a lower PIM DR priority to the PIM DR interface.
B.    Assign a lower IP address to the PIM DR interface.
C.    Assign a higher PIM DR priority to the PIM DR interface.
D.    Increase the cost on the PIM DR interface.

Answer: C

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QUESTION 41
Which version of AsyncOS for web is required to deploy the Web Security Appliance as a CWS connector?

A.    AsyncOS version 7.7.x
B.    AsyncOS version 7.5.x
C.    AsyncOS version 7.5.7
D.    AsyncOS version 7.5.0

Answer: C

QUESTION 42
What are three benefits of the Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Solution? (Choose three.)

A.    It can protect against command-injection and directory-traversal attacks.
B.    It provides Internet transport while maintaining corporate security policies.
C.    It provides secure remote access to managed computers.
D.    It provides clientless remote access to multiple network-based systems.
E.    It enforces security policies, regardless of the user location.
F.    It uses ACLs to determine best-route connections for clients in a secure environment.

Answer: BCE

QUESTION 43
Which Cisco technology secures the network through malware filtering, category-based control, and reputation-based control?

A.    Cisco ASA 5500 Series appliances
B.    Cisco remote-access VPNs
C.    Cisco IronPort WSA
D.    Cisco IPS

Answer: C

QUESTION 44
Which antispam technology assumes that email from server A, which has a history of distributing spam, is more likely to be spam than email from server B, which does not have a history of distributing spam?

A.    Reputation-based filtering
B.    Context-based filtering
C.    Cisco ESA multilayer approach
D.    Policy-based filtering

Answer: A

QUESTION 45
Which Cisco technology is a modular security service that combines a stateful inspection firewall with next-generation application awareness, providing near real-time threat protection?

A.    Cisco ASA 5500 series appliances
B.    Cisco ASA CX Context-Aware Security
C.    WSA
D.    Internet Edge Firewall / IPS

Answer: B

QUESTION 46
Which three statements about Cisco ASA CX are true? (Choose three.)

A.    It groups multiple ASAs as a single logical device.
B.    It can perform context-aware inspection.
C.    It provides high-density security services with high availability.
D.    It uses policy-based interface controls to inspect and forward TCP- and UDP-based packets.
E.    It can make context-aware decisions.
F.    It uses four cooperative architectural constructs to build the firewall.

Answer: BEF

QUESTION 47
During initial configuration, the Cisco ASA can be configured to drop all traffic if the ASA CX SSP fails by using which command in a policy-map?

A.    cxsc fail
B.    cxsc fail-close
C.    cxsc fail-open
D.    cxssp fail-close

Answer: B

QUESTION 48
Cisco AVC allows control of which three of the following? (Choose three.)

A.    Facebook
B.    LWAPP
C.    IPv6
D.    MySpace
E.    Twitter
F.    WCCP

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 49
The Web Security Appliance has identities defined for faculty and staff, students, and default access. The faculty and staff identity identifies users based on the source network and authenticated credentials. The identity for students identifies users based on the source network along with successful authentication credentials. The global identity is for guest users not authenticated against the domain.
Recently, a change was made to the organization’s security policy to allow faculty and staff access to a social network website, and the security group changed the access policy for faculty and staff to allow the social networking category.
Which are the two most likely reasons that the category is still being blocked for a faculty and staff user? (Choose two.)

A.    The user is being matched against the student policy because the user did not enter credentials.
B.    The user is using an unsupported browser so the credentials are not working.
C.    The social networking URL was entered into a custom URL category that is blocked in the access policy.
D.    The user is connected to the wrong network and is being blocked by the student policy.
E.    The social networking category is being allowed but the AVC policy is still blocking the website.

Answer: CE

QUESTION 50
Which five system management protocols are supported by the Intrusion Prevention System? (Choose five.)

A.    SNMPv2c
B.    SNMPv1
C.    SNMPv2
D.    SNMPv3
E.    syslog
F.    SDEE
G.    SMTP

Answer: ABCFG

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QUESTION 21
Which statement is true when implementing a router with a dynamic public IP address in a crypto map based site-to-site VPN?

A.    The router must be configured with a dynamic crypto map.
B.    Certificates are always used for phase 1 authentication.
C.    The tunnel establishment will fail if the router is configured as a responder only.
D.    The router and the peer router must have NAT traversal enabled.

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QUESTION 21
Which two EAP types require server side certificates? (Choose two.)

A.    EAP-TLS
B.    EAP-PEAP
C.    EAP-MD5
D.    LEAP
E.    EAP-FAST
F.    MSCHAPv2

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QUESTION 21
Which technology provides forwarding-plane abstraction to support Layer 2 to Layer 7 network services in Cisco Nexus 1000V?

A.    Virtual Service Node
B.    Virtual Service Gateway
C.    Virtual Service Data Path
D.    Virtual Service Agent

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QUESTION 71
In a Cisco UCS environment, what are the three power types in a power policy? (Choose three.)

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B.    grid
C.    redund
D.    n-plus-1
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QUESTION 21
If there are four I/O module links from the Cisco Unified Computing System 5108 Blade Chassis to the Cisco Unified Computing System 6248UP Fabric Interconnect, which dynamic vNICs can be defined?

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B.    16
C.    24
D.    48
E.    54
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QUESTION 21
The following commands are issued on a Cisco Router:

Router(configuration)#access-list 199 permit tcp host 10.1.1.1 host 172.16.1.1
Router(configuration)#access-list 199 permit tcp host 172.16.1.1 host 10.1.1.1
Router(configuration)#exit
Router#debug ip packet 199

What will the debug output on the console show?

A.    All IP packets passing through the router
B.    Only IP packets with the source address of 10.1.1.1
C.    All IP packets from 10.1.1.1 to 172.16.1.1
D.    All IP Packets between 10.1.1.1 and 172.16.1.1

Answer: D
Explanation:
In this example, the “debug ip packet” command is tied to access list 199, specifying which IP packets should be debugged. Access list 199 contains two lines, one going from the host with IP address 10.1.1.1 to 172.16.1.1 and the other specifying all TCP packets from host 172.16.1.1 to 10.1.1.1.

QUESTION 22
What level of logging is enabled on a Router where the following logs are seen?

%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up

A.    alerts
B.    critical
C.    errors
D.    notifications

Answer: D
Explanation:
Cisco routers, switches, PIX and ASA firewalls prioritize log messages into 8 levels (0-7), as shown below:

LevelLevel NameDescription
0 Emergencies System is unusable
1 Alerts Immediate action needed
2 Critical Critical conditions
3 Errors Error conditions
4 Warnings Warning conditions
5 Notifications Informational messages
6 Informational Normal but significant conditions
7 Debugging Debugging messages

When you enable logging for a specific level, all logs of that severity and greater (numerically less) will be logged. In this case we can see that logging level of 3 (as seen by the 3 in “LINK-3-UPDOWN”) and level 5 (as seen by the 5 in “LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN”) are shown, which means that logging level 5 must have been configured. As shown by the table, logging level 5 is Notifications.

QUESTION 23
You have the followings commands on your Cisco Router:

ip ftp username admin
ip ftp password backup

You have been asked to switch from FTP to HTTP. Which two commands will you use to replace the existing commands?

A.    ip http username admin
B.    ip http client username admin
C.    ip http password backup
D.    ip http client password backup
E.    ip http server username admin
F.    ip http server password backup

Answer: BD
Explanation:
Configuring the HTTP Client
Perform this task to enable the HTTP client and configure optional client characteristics. The standard HTTP 1.1 client and the secure HTTP client are always enabled. No commands exist to disable the HTTP client. For information about configuring optional characteristics for the HTTPS client, see the HTTPS-HTTP Server and Client with SSL 3.0, Release 12.2(15)T, feature module.

SUMMARY STEPS
1. enable
2. configure terminal
3. ip http client cache {ager interval minutes | memory {file file-size-limit | pool pool-size-limit}
4. ip http client connection {forceclose | idle timeout seconds | retry count | timeout seconds}
5. ip http client password password
6. ip http client proxy-server proxy-name proxy-port port-number
7. ip http client response timeout seconds
8. ip http client source-interface type number
9. ip http client username username

Reference: HTTP 1.1 Web Server and Client.
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/netmgmt/configuration/guide/nm_http_web.html

QUESTION 24
You have 2 NTP servers in your network – 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.2.
You want to configure a Cisco router to use 10.1.1.2 as its NTP server before falling back to
10.1.1.1. Which commands will you use to configure the router?

A.    ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2
B.    ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 primary
C.    ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 prefer
D.    ntp server 10.1.1.1 fallback
ntp server 10.1.1.2

Answer: C
Explanation:
A router can be configured to prefer an NTP source over another. A preferred server’s responses are discarded only if they vary dramatically from the other time sources. Otherwise, the preferred server is used for synchronization without consideration of the other time sources. Preferred servers are usually specified when they are known to be extremely accurate. To specify a preferred server, use the prefer keyword appended to the ntp server command. The following example tells the router to prefer TimeServerOne over TimeServerTwo:
Router#config terminal
Enter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/Z.

Router(config)#ntp server TimeServerOne prefer
Router(config)#ntp server TimeServerTwo
Router(config)#^Z

QUESTION 25
The following command is issued on a Cisco Router:

Router(configuration)#logging console warnings

Which alerts will be seen on the console?

A.    Warnings only
B.    debugging, informational, notifications, warnings
C.    warnings, errors, critical, alerts, emergencies
D.    notifications, warnings, errors
E.    warnings, errors, critical, alerts

Answer: C
Explanation:
Cisco routers prioritize log messages into 8 levels (0-7), as shown below:

LevelLevel NameDescription
0 Emergencies System is unusable
1 Alerts Immediate action needed
2 Critical Critical conditions
3 Errors Error conditions
4 Warnings Warning conditions
5 Notifications Informational messages
6 Informational Normal but significant conditions
7 Debugging Debugging messages

When you enable logging for a specific level, all logs of that severity and greater (numerically less) will be logged. In this case, when you enable console logging of warning messages (level 4), it will log levels 0-4, making the correct answer warnings, errors, critical, alerts, and emergencies.

QUESTION 26
Which two of the following options are categories of Network Maintenance tasks?

A.    Firefighting
B.    Interrupt-driven
C.    Policy-based
D.    Structured
E.    Foundational

Answer: BD
Explanation:
Proactive Versus Reactive Network Maintenance:
Network maintenance tasks can be categorized as one of the following:

Structured tasks: Performed as a predefined plan.
Interrupt-driven tasks: Involve resolving issues as they are reported.

QUESTION 27
A customer network engineer has made configuration changes that have resulted in some loss of connectivity. You have been called in to evaluate a switch network and suggest resolutions to the problems.

271
PC2 in VLAN 200 is unable to ping the gateway address 172.16.200.1; identify the issue.

A.    VTP domain name mismatch on SW4
B.    VLAN 200 not configured on SW1
C.    VLAN 200 not configured on SW2
D.    VLAN 200 not configured on SW4

Answer: D

QUESTION 28
A customer network engineer has made configuration changes that have resulted in some loss of connectivity. You have been called in to evaluate a switch network and suggest resolutions to the problems.
281
Which of statement is true regarding STP issue identified with switches in the given topology?

A.    Loopguard configured on the New_Switch places the ports in loop inconsistent state
B.    Rootguard configured on SW1 places the ports in root inconsistent state
C.    Bpduguard configured on the New_Switch places the access ports in error-disable
D.    Rootguard configured on SW2 places the ports in root inconsistent state

Answer: A

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QUESTION 21
Pilot testing of the new switching infrastructure finds that when the root port is lost, STP immediately replaces the root port with an alternative root port. Which spanning-tree technology is used to accomplish backup root port selection?

A.    PVST+
B.    PortFast
C.    BackboneFast
D.    UplinkFast
E.    Loop Guard
F.    UDLD

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QUESTION 21
You have configured a Cisco Unity Express server that uses the G.711 codec. You want to send outbound messages in a format that uses lower bandwidth. However, you want to keep the quality of the incoming message high. Which two tasks should you perform? (Choose two.)

A.    Convert the incoming messages to G.729a.
B.    Keep the incoming messages as G.711.
C.    Convert the outgoing message to 64 kb/s using G.729a.
D.    Convert the outgoing messages to G.726.
E.    Send the outgoing messages in the G.711 format.
F.    Store the message using the original codec, but convert it to 64 kb/s for outgoing.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 22
Which email integration will allow a Lotus Notes client to retrieve emails from Cisco Unity Express?

A.    MIME
B.    SMTP
C.    JTAPI
D.    CTIQBE
E.    IMAP
F.    Cisco Unity Express email infrastructure

Answer: E

QUESTION 23
What is the maximum number of custom auto-attendant applications that you can set up in Cisco Unity Express?

A.    1
B.    2
C.    3
D.    4
E.    5
F.    6

Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which two parameters are required when you configure the Voice Profile for Internet Mail location on Cisco Unity Express? (Choose two.)

A.    domain name or IP address
B.    destination type
C.    display name
D.    location ID
E.    dial ID
F.    Simple Mail Transfer Protocol domain name

Answer: AD

QUESTION 25
What is the maximum number of users that can be imported into Cisco Unity Express from Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express at one time?

A.    200
B.    100
C.    500
D.    50

Answer: A

QUESTION 26
A user has reported that keys pressed when accessing Cisco Unity Express are not being acknowledged by the system. This configuration is found on the voice-enabled IOS router:

dial-peer voice 6800 voip
destination-pattern 5…
session protocol sipv2
session target ipv4:10.3.6.127
codec g711ulaw
no vad

Which configuration command is needed to complete the configuration and solve the problem?

A.    dtmf-relay sip-notify
B.    dtmf-relay rtp-nte
C.    dtmf-relay cisco-rtp
D.    dtmf-relay h245-signal

Answer: A

QUESTION 27
An end user is complaining that when they try to retrieve their voicemail messages, they hear the message “mailbox is currently in use.” What must the administrator do to resolve this issue?

A.    The administrator must reload the mailbox for the user.
B.    The administrator must verify that the mailbox is enabled.
C.    The administrator must verify that the primary extension that is associated with the end user is in an E.164 format.
D.    The administrator must unlock the mailbox for the user.

Answer: D

QUESTION 28
In order for Cisco Unified Presence to show the presence status of an IP phone, which two configuration steps must be completed in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager server? (Choose two.)

A.    Check the Allow Presence Status check box.
B.    Associate the end device with the user.
C.    Allow the SIP publish trunk to forward presence status messages.
D.    Associate the directory number with the user.
E.    Enable Cisco Unified Personal Communicator Status flag.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 29
What are four capabilities of Cisco Unified Presence user communication? (Choose four.)

A.    video conferencing
B.    web collaboration
C.    instant messaging
D.    basic audio
E.    advanced audio/web hosting
F.    automatic LAN configuration
G.    whiteboarding

Answer: ABCD

QUESTION 30
From which entity does a Cisco Unified Personal Communicator device receive its TFTP server address when it is integrated with a Cisco Unified Presence Server for failover?

A.    Cisco Unified Presence server
B.    Cisco Unified Communications Manager TFTP server
C.    Device profile in Cisco Unified Communication Manager
D.    Manually created upon installation of Cisco Unified Personal Communicator
E.    Cisco Unified Personal Communicator does not use TFTP.

Answer: A

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[April 2018] 2018 New Released Cisco 300-075 Exam Dumps Free Download In Lead2pass 423q

2018 Updated Lead2pass Cisco 300-075 Exam Questions:

https://www.lead2pass.com/300-075.html

QUESTION 21
Which two statements regarding you configuring a traversal server and traversal client relationship are true? (Choose two.)

A.    VCS supports only the H.460.18/19 protocol for H.323 traversal calls.
B.    VCS supports either the Assent or the H.460.18/19 protocol for H.323 traversal calls.
C.    VCS supports either the Assent or the H.460.18/19 protocol for SIP traversal calls.
D.    If the Assent protocol is configured, a TCP/TLS connection is established from the traversal client to the traversal server for SIP signaling.
E.    A VCS Expressway located in the public network or DMZ acts as the firewall traversal client. Continue reading [April 2018] 2018 New Released Cisco 300-075 Exam Dumps Free Download In Lead2pass 423q

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