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QUESTION 41
Which three of the following security controls would you take into consideration when implementing loT capabities? (Choose three.)

A.    Layered Security Appoach.
B.    Place security above functionality.
C.    Define lifecycle controls for loT devices.
D.    Privacy impact Assessment.
E.    Change passwords every 90 days.
F.    Implement Intrusion Detection Systems on loT devices.

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 42
Which EIGRP feature allows the use of leak maps?

A.    offset-list
B.    neighbor
C.    address-family
D.    stub

Answer: D

QUESTION 43
Refer to the exhibit. Which IPv6 OSPF network type is applied to interface Fa0/0 of R2 by default?

431

A.    broadcast
B.    Ethernet
C.    multipoint
D.    point-to-point

Answer: A

QUESTION 44
Which option describes the characteristics of a public Infrastructure as a Serveice cloud service model?

A.    It is a way of delivering cloud-computing infrastructure (servers, storage, network, and operating systems) as an on-demand service.
B.    It is a cloud service where the underlying hardware is managed by the cloud service provider.
C.    It is a cloud-computing platform that facilitates the creation of web applications without the need to maintain the supporting software applications.
D.    It is a cloud-computing platform that facilitates the creation of web applications without the need to maintain the supporting software operating systems.

Answer: A

QUESTION 45
Which effect of configuring the passive-interface S0/0 command under the EIGRP routing process is true?

A.    It prevents EIGRP neighbor relationships from being formed over interface S0/0.
B.    It configures interface S0/0 to send hello packets with the passive-interface bit set.
C.    It configures interface S0/0 to suppress all outgoing routing updates.
D.    It configures interface S0/0 to reject all incoming routing updates.

Answer: A

QUESTION 46
What is the default IS-IS interface metric on a Cisco router?

A.    255
B.    64
C.    10
D.    128

Answer: C

QUESTION 47
Which two items must be defined to capture packet data with the Embedded Packet Capture feature? (Choose two.)

A.    the capture rate
B.    the capture point
C.    the capture buffer
D.    the buffer memory size
E.    the capture filter
F.    the capture file export location

Answer: BC

QUESTION 48
When you configure an IPv6 IPsec tunnel, which two fields can represent the ISAKMP identity of a peer? (Choose two)

A.    Authentication method
B.    DH group identifier
C.    Hostname
D.    IPv6 address
E.    Encryption algorithm

Answer: CD

QUESTION 49
Which action enables passive interfaces in RIPv6(RIPng)?

A.    Use “passive-interface default” under the routing process.
B.    Enable passive-interface on interface configuration.
C.    passive interface are not supported in RIPng.
D.    Enable passive-interface for each interface under the routing process.

Answer: C

QUESTION 50
Which statement is true about IGMP?

A.    Multicast sources send IGMP messages to their first-hop router, which then generates a PIM join message that is then sent to the RP.
B.    Multicast receivers send IGMP messages to their first-hop router, which then forwards the IGMP messages to the RP.
C.    IGMP messages are encapsulated in PIM register messages and sent to the RP.
D.    Multicast receivers send IGMP messages to signal their interest to receive traffic for specific multicast groups.

Answer: D

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QUESTION 21
Which OpenStack component implements role-based access control?

A.    Horizon
B.    Nova
C.    Neutron
D.    Keystone

Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit. R2 is configured as the R1 neighbor in area 51, but R2 fails to receive the configured summary route.
Which action can you take to correct the problem?

221

A.    Replace the summary-address command with the area-range command.
B.    Configure a summary address under R1interface GigabitEthernet0/0.
C.    Configure a summary address under R1 interface GigabitEthernet1/0.
D.    Configure the no discard-route command in the OSPF process of R1.
E.    Configure ip ospf network broadcast under the Loopback0 interface of R1.

Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which two conditions must be met before IS-IS Level 1 routers will become adjacent?(Choose two.)

A.    The routers must share a common Autonomous System Number.
B.    The router must share a common process ID.
C.    The router must be in different areas.
D.    The routers must share a common network segment.
E.    The routers must be configured with the neighbor command.
F.    The routers must be in the same area.

Answer: DF

QUESTION 24
Which two statements are true about control plane policing? (Choose two.)

A.    Control plane policing will affect only traffic that is destined to the route processor.
B.    Access lists that are used in policies for control plane policing must not use the log keyword.
C.    Access lists that use the deny rule in control plane policing do not progress to the next class.
D.    The log keyword can be used but the log-input keyword must not be used in policing.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 25
Which three pieces of information are carried on OSPF type 3 LSAs? (Choose three)

A.    metric
B.    authentication type
C.    link state
D.    IP subnet
E.    external route tag
F.    subnet mask

Answer: ACF

QUESTION 26
Your NetFlow collector is not working due to a large amount of traffic entering your network which is destined to a single IP address.
Which NetFlow feature allows you to collect the top source hosts for this traffic on the local router?

A.    NetFlow can export flows only to a extermal flow collector
B.    show ip cache flow
C.    ip accounting
D.    ip flow-top-talkers

Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit. R1, R2 and R3 are in different satelite offices of the same prganization.
A multicast video source is located behind R1.R3 frequently receives video streams intend for R2.
These streams saturate the available bandwidth of R3.
Which configuration change can alleviate the congestion on R3?

271

A.    Configure R3 to send an immediate-leave message when necessary to stop receiving unwanted traffic.
B.    Configure IGMP snooping on R1, R2, and R3.
C.    Place a PIM filter on the switches and interfaces that connect to R1, R2, and R3.
D.    Enable IGMP snooping on all switches that connect to R1, R2, and R3.
E.    Place a PIM filter on the switch and interface that connect to R1 only.

Answer: D

QUESTION 28
With which protocol is CoAP designed to be used?

A.    TCP
B.    SNMP
C.    UDP
D.    XMPP

Answer: C

QUESTION 29
Which two solutions can reduce UDP latency? (Choose two.)

A.    fast retransmission
B.    fast recovery
C.    low-latency queuing
D.    IP service level agreements
E.    congestion-avoidance algorithm

Answer: CD
Explanation:
In the actual exam, if becomes single choice question just choose C.

QUESTION 30
Which three statements describe the characteristics of a VPLS architecture? (Choose three.)

A.    It forwards Ethernet frames.
B.    It maps MAC address destinations to IP next hops
C.    It supports MAC address aging.
D.    It replicates broadcast and multicast frames to multiple ports.
E.    It conveys MAC address reachability information in a separate control protocol.
F.    It can suppress the flooding of traffic.

Answer: ACD

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QUESTION 11
Which two EtherChannel modes can create an LACP EtherChannel ?

A.    on
B.    active
C.    passive
D.    auto
E.    desirable

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QUESTION 1
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QUESTION 721
What is one requirement to support the IGMP proxy feature?

A.    Devices on the unidirectional link must be in the same IP subnet.
B.    Devices connected to a unidirectional link must disable Internet access.
C.    IGMP snooping must be disabled.
D.    PIM-DM must be enabled on all unidirectional links.

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QUESTION 701
Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum size of a packet that can be sent successfully from R3 to 10.1.2.1 without enabling fragmentation?

A.    1490 bytes
B.    1501 bytes
C.    1480 bytes
D.    1479 bytes
E.    1500 bytes
F.    1521 bytes

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QUESTION 681
What is the initial BFD state?

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QUESTION 661
What command can you enter to configure NBAR to recognize VNC traffic?

A.    Ipnbar custom-map VNC tcp-udp 5900 5901
B.    Ipnbar application-map VNC udp 5900 5901
C.    Ipnbar port-to-application seq 5 VNC tcp 5900 5901
D.    Ipnbar port-map VNC hex 0xAA 0x1B
E.    Ipnbar port-map VNC tcp 5900 5901

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QUESTION 641
Refer to the Exhibit. What is the reason that the two devices failed to form an EIGRP neighbor relationship?

 

A.    The K-values are valid.
B.    The two devices have different key IDs.
C.    The hold timers are mismatched.
D.    The advanced MD5 digest do not match between the devices.

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QUESTION 621
What are three required attributes in a BGP update message? (select three)

A.    AGGREGATOR
B.    AS_PATH
C.    ORIGIN
D.    MED
E.    NEXT_HOP

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QUESTION 601
Which two statements about native VLANs are true? (Choose two.)

A.    They require VTPv3.
B.    They are used to forwarded untagged traffic only.
C.    They are used to forward tagged traffic only.
D.    They are configured in VLAN database mode.
E.    They are configured under the trunk interface.
F.    They are used to forward both tagged and untagged traffi

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QUESTION 561
Which statement about OTV is true?

A.    The overlay interface becomes active only when configuration is complete and it is manually enabled.
B.    OTV data groups can operate only in PIM sparse-mode.
C.    The overlay interface becomes active immediately when it is configured.
D.    The interface facing the OTV groups must be configured with the highest MTU possible.

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QUESTION 501
Which two statements about NPTv6 are true? (Choose two.)

A.    The translation is invisible to applications that hard code IP information within the application logic.
B.    It is a one-way stateful translation for the IPv6 address.
C.    Translation is 1:1 at the network layer.
D.    It is a two-way stateless translation for the network prefix.

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QUESTION 481
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the route target for 192.168.1.0/24 is true?

 

A.    Its route target is 64512:100010051.
B.    Its route targets are 64512:100010051, 64512:2002250, and 64512:3002300.
C.    Its route target is 64512:3002300.
D.    Its route targets are 64512:100010051 and 64512:3002300.
E.    Its route targets are 64512:2002250 and 64512:3002300.

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QUESTION 461
Which statement about the EIGRP RTO is true?

A.    It is six times the SRTT.
B.    It is the time that it normally takes for an update to be received by a peer.
C.    It is the time that it normally takes to receive a reply to a query.
D.    It is the average time that it takes for a reliable packet to be acknowledged.

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QUESTION 441
Which address is a MAC address that is mapped from an IPv6 address (RFC 2464)?

A.    3333.FF17.FC0F
B.    FFFE. FF17.FC0F
C.    FF34.3333.FF17
D.    FF7E.FF17.FC0F

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QUESTION 421
Which three features require Cisco Express Forwarding? (Choose three.)

A.    NBAR
B.    AutoQoS
C.    fragmentation
D.    MPLS
E.    UplinkFast
F.    BackboneFast

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QUESTION 401
Refer to the exhibit. Which technology can be used on the switch to enable host A to receive multicast packets for 239.2.2.2 but prevent host B from receiving them?

 

A.    IGMP filtering
B.    MLD snooping
C.    IGMP snooping
D.    MLD filtering

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QUESTION 381
What is also called Type 0 authentication in OSPF on Cisco Routers?

A.    MD5
B.    There is no Type 0 authentication
C.    SHA1
D.    Null

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QUESTION 361
Which two statements are true about AAA? (Choose two.)

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B.    If RADIUS is the only method configured in AAA, and the server becomes unreachable, the user
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C.    If the local keyword is not included and the AAA server does not respond, then authorization will
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D.    AAA can be used to authenticate the enable password with a AAA server.

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